Ian,
That comment was stating that if we were to find some physical evidence that concretely proves that Jesus existed, that such evidence would be more damning to the Christian religion than if no one every found any more material on the figure than what exists today; simply because anything we could find would be a rather mundane figure and individual - not a superhuman divine figure.
One of the sweet ironies is that an historical Jesus actually causes far more damage to the religion than it could ever help, for any historical version of this figure is entirely absent the divine attributes, and those divine attributes summarize the principle backbone of the Christian religion.
Just simply existing doesn't really cut it.
Not being able to prove that existence actually helps more than if the existence was proven (for the religion anyway).
Maximra,
Forgive the imperfection of the comparison; I was really just grabbing the first cases that come to mind, and it wasn't supposed to justify or verify Jesus' historicity in doing so.
Instead, it was to help explain the classification of historically evident; focusing on the issue that many things are second-hand, that isn't the part that is unique about Jesus' case.
As you noted, the quality of the material is what makes it unique; as well, that we haven't any real verification of the claims outside of the claims themselves which stand as unknown in authorship.
This is why I gave the example of Awilda a bit further down as that is a more appropriate comparison and indeed stands at about the same position in historicity as Jesus; only, no one really cares about Awilda so it's not going to really spark 7000 posts of arguments.
Just to be clear, I am not making a case for Jesus; nor do I make a case against Jesus in these remarks.
I am only remarking on the difference between something being classed as historically evident, or the historicity being decided to the positive, and something having been actually extant.
This loops back to some of what you said
Ian,
What determines the classification of something being historically evident isn't just that the field received an account in writing (though sometimes you come across some entries that definitely give you reason to question if that's how it got put in), but instead, that a writing arrives to the field and the field...essentially vets the material.
Firstly, there's the physical tests on the writing: is it the right age for what it appears to be, is the ink the right kind of ink for the era and region in question, are there any traces on the material that should simply not be there for that region and time, and similar kinds of physical questions?
Secondly, there is the paleographic "vetting", in which the style, prose, physical layout (blocking), grammatical structure, and several similar concepts are compared against the known variables for the period and time.
That just gets us to verifying that the artifact itself is worth reading; that doesn't tell us if the content it accurate or not.
So then the content is read in a variety of manners. You would think that it's all done using paleography, or first-hand, but instead usually what happens is someone "edits" the artifact and publishes an academic copy of the artifact in (usually) English (though in the past, sometimes that was German as well).
Then that opens up the availability quite a bit and various scholars dip their hands into the material and toss their "two-cents" around regarding the content (now, typically, this is all very boring and not very quick as most content is extremely specific in case and amazingly benign).
Jesus is a bit weird in that the historicity of Jesus went completely backwards from how we normally go about this process.
Jesus, as an historically accepted figure, predated the Western cultural historical society itself - it was inherited.
After being inherited, then the worse kind of work was done, "biblical archaeology", where scholars set out to prove the Bible's accuracy by locating material using the Bible.
That, as a whole, had terrible results (but still oddly has a few remaining adherents; though at a severe cost to approval, as the field of archaeology considers this kind of archaeology to be paramount to us hearing of clergy violating the youth).
So how does Jesus still stand extant?
Good question.
Yes, we do inherit the positive for history and wait for the negative to be proven if the content is capable of being reasoned as possibly true (at least for ancient history), but I think the case of Jesus goes a bit too far, honestly, for the ethics of the field.
If I had absolute rule over history, I'd decree that Jesus is now declared not historical
until the case is re-examined from scratch, and theologians would not be accepted independent of secular historians and anthropologists.
Here's the main reason most of the secular scholarship considers it likely for Jesus to have existed (note: I'm not condoning the opinion):
It is the nature of the texts taken in context of the period.
It's not a very strong argument for forum discussions; in fact, it's probably one of the weakest arguments in common discussion.
However, from the perspective of working in the field (as a secular anthropologist or historian would), it carries a pretty compelling amount of weight.
What that "nature of the texts taken in context of the period" means is compare these stories to other texts of all sorts during the time of 2nd c CE back to 1st c BCE.
There is one remarkable aspect; they are entirely unique.
- No one was writing fictional accounts of alleged real 'walk-among-you-daily' individuals.
- No one was creating mythologies that fit this style and form.
- No one was writing complete fabrications of text this way about a no-one person, or even some messiah (our closest ballpark would be Zoroaster, but we don't know how that story looked around this time yet; though clearly it had impact on Judaism as well as this Jesus story).
- On the other hand, oral tradition was definitely prevalent, and Hebrew peoples did not tend to write down much about those whom they followed, whereas non-Hebrews definitely did.
- The sociopolitical and philosophical content contained within matches the period being claimed; there's nothing that stands remarkably out of place for 1st c BCE to 1st c CE Hebraic politics and philosophy for the bulk of the content (of several texts, not just canonical).
So...many professionals look at the stories and decide a conclusion that someone most likely did exist which inspired these stories since, anthropologically speaking, other options don't tend to make sense.
I can sympathize with this and I can also agree with it,
but, I don't think enough imagination has possibly been put to controlled use in arriving at that conclusion.
For instance, we know that in the 6th c BCE, the Hebrews were in Babylonian exile and mostly remained there until around the 3rd c BCE.
We also know this had cultural and lasting impacts on their theological constructs and philosophies; not to mention their political situations.
And we also know that the Zoroaster legends and stories are from roughly around this same time frame.
Further, the messianic expansion of Judaism only really began following their return from this exile, and then following severe instances of corruption surrounding and during the Hazmonean era.
Meanwhile the apocalyptic fashion of Judaism began almost along side of the exilic period.
We also know that other prophetic and messianic claiming individuals surfaced in and around 1st c BCE to 1st c CE.
We know, again, that Hebrew culture did not value writing about the individuals very much and relied more on oral traditions when the content was non-Law instructions.
And, again, we know that non-Hebrew cultures did value writing such accounts down far more than the Hebrew culture did.
So, rather than just arriving at the conclusion that the texts must be rooted upon some individual due to the numbered considerations above, it stands as possible, that there were stories going around the 1st c BCE to 1st c CE era regarding messianic and prophetic individuals who were outspoken and provocative, and of which were entirely wiped out following the Roman razing of Judah. However, these 'holy men' of the culture and era could have impressed the social culture of the Mediterranean (which was in an era of ingesting and mixing religions and philosophies) and that same suite of cultures could have valued the telling of the story of Hebrew holy prophets to the point of summarizing their plight by borrowing from a familiar tangent of Zoroastrian legends since some of these figures could have spoke philosophies quite similar to the Zoroastrian style due to the influences such had on Judaism during the exilic period.
This could have even began in and around the Judean area, as scores of Hellenistic structures litter the Levant region for the period - it is not as if they were absent the area.
This is an example of an alternative to assuming that Jesus probably existed based on the numbered list above's reasoning.