Bart Ehrman on the Historical Jesus

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pakeha

Brainache's right. Your source is restricting the term Christian to Pauline Christian only. That there were other people, the Jerusalem group who were also called Christians is more than probable. And they might well have been active in the Revolt. They consisted of "myriads" of "staunch defenders of the Law", as James is made to say in Acts. For early use, by members of the Jerusalem group, of the name Christian, see Acts 11.
22 News of this reached the church in Jerusalem, and they sent Barnabas to Antioch ... 25 Then Barnabas went to Tarsus to look for Saul, 26 and when he found him, he brought him to Antioch. So for a whole year Barnabas and Saul met with the church and taught great numbers of people. The disciples were called Christians first at Antioch.
This suggests that the term came to be used prior to the split between Paul and the Jerusalem group.
 
I wonder how independent attestation works since outside the gospels there's really nothing solid about Jesus.

In fact I'd argue that there's nothing solid about Jesus _IN_ the Gospels. However, there is _something_ both in and outside the Gospels about Jesus, and that's at least _something_.
 
No. The point is that the "Christus" in Tacitus is the same one as in the bible. Not King David or Cyrus or Solomon...

Except in our oldest copy Tacitus claims that the "Chrestians" were named for "Christus" which make no sense unless the name-title-whatever it was was Chrestus a VERY common name and title in ancient times.

In fact the very word Christian doesn't appear in known contemporary works until the mid point of of the 5th century even though the word Christ is used all they way back into late 2nd century. So Jesus followers spell the title "Christ" right but they can't get the derivative "Christian" spelled right...HOW do you do that?

More over in Panarion 29 Epiphanius of the 4th century expressly states regarding Nazarenes "this group did not name themselves after Christ or with Jesus’ own name, but Natzraya. However, at that time all Christians were called Nazoraeans in the same way. They also came to be called "Jessaeans'' for a short while, before the disciples began to be called "Christians" at Antioch."

However, Tertullian (160 – 225) states Jews called Christians "Nazarenes" in his Against Marcion which pushes the term well into 2nd century. This raises another red flag about the TF as Josephus was a Jew and hence would have called Jesus' followers Nazarenes not Christians.

It is doubtful any "Christians" existed in Rome c64 CE under that name but were rather calling themselves Natzraya or "Nazarenes" or "Jessaeans''.

So Tacitus' statement is akin to having someone claiming that Vlad III was considered a sadist by his contemporaries...it is a historical impossibility because the very word "sadist" didn't exist in the 15th century; not only doesn't the very word "Christian" not appear until the midpoint of the 5th century but we have statements that followers of Jesus were called Nazoraeans or Jessaeans in the time period Tacitus is talking about.
 
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Except in our oldest copy Tacitus claims that the "Chrestians" were named for "Christus" which make no sense unless the name-title-whatever it was was Chrestus a VERY common name and title in ancient times.

In fact the very word Christian doesn't appear in known contemporary works until the mid point of of the 5th century even though the word Christ is used all they way back into late 2nd century. So Jesus followers spell the title "Christ" right but they can't get the derivative "Christian" spelled right...HOW do you do that?

More over in Panarion 29 Epiphanius of the 4th century expressly states regarding Nazarenes "this group did not name themselves after Christ or with Jesus’ own name, but Natzraya. However, at that time all Christians were called Nazoraeans in the same way. They also came to be called "Jessaeans'' for a short while, before the disciples began to be called "Christians" at Antioch."

However, Tertullian (160 – 225) states Jews called Christians "Nazarenes" in his Against Marcion which pushes the term well into 2nd century.

It is doubtful any "Christians" existed in Rome c64 CE under that name but were rather calling themselves Natzraya or "Nazarenes" or "Jessaeans''.

So Tacitus' statement is akin to having someone claiming that Vlad III was considered a sadist by his contemporaries...it is a historical impossibility because the very word "sadist" didn't exist in the 15th century; not only doesn't very word "Christian" not appear until the midpoint of the 5th century but we have statements that followers of Jesus were called Nazoraeans or Jessaeans in the time period Tacitus is talking about.

What a load of Bollocks.

"They also came to be called "Jessaeans'' for a short while, before the disciples began to be called "Christians" at Antioch."" Yes they started to be called "Christians" when Paul was preaching at Antioch in the mid first century. How does that become the "5th Century"?

Plus you are once again ignoring the bit about being put to death by Pilate. Why do you keep doing that? Who do you think it will fool?
 
That was odd. He says this:


He then goes on to describe the Ebionite Jewish Christians and linking them to Qumran.

Apparently he thinks not being Jewish was a prerequisite for being Christian.

The people he describes as "Nazorean" were the same ones Josephus calls "Zealots"...

Yes.
I thought you'd find that amusing.
 
maximara

Nothing in what you write makes it less than very likely that when Tacitus was referring to a Christus or Chrestus who was executed by Pilate and in whose name a superstition grew up, he had in mind the same person as the Gospels refer to. That is true even if there was no Jesus. Real or mythical, it is overwhelmingly probable that it is the same person.
 
You may not have seen all that has been posted here and in several concurrent HJ threads, but it has been shown with quotes repeated throughout Ehrman’s 2013 book and from what he said live on film on shortly after that books publication, that Ehrman does not merely say “it is more likely that an historical Jesus existed”, he repeatedly says it is “certain” that Jesus “definitely” existed. And describing his views on this (i.e. his opinion of absolute unguarded “certainty”), he says that “almost every properly trained scholar on the planet” agrees with his views.


When it comes to the existence of Jesus as an historical person the vast majority of trained scholars do agree with his view. I don't think that many necessarily agree with his other conclusions -- that Jesus was an apocalyptic preacher, etc. -- though. I think that is what others have been trying to tell you. There actually is a consensus that an historical Jesus existed. That consensus may be wrong; experts have been wrong in the past. But there is a generally accepted 'rule' that we go with the consensus of experts until proven otherwise.

Correct, I have not seen all that is posted in this and other HJ threads, but I have read much of it and I am very familiar with the arguments.


Parenthetically, I would not put my level of belief that a historical person existed behind some of the stories anywhere near 100%.



Oh sure, we might all be able to agree that much of what is said about Jesus in the bible appears to be untrue or “myth“ (we don’t have to go as far as saying it‘s “99.9%“). But the main dispute which causes these threads to persist (one of several problems actually), is that the HJ side say that the evidence is good enough for them each to decide that it is more likely than not that Jesus existed, i.e. that the evidence provides greater than 50% likelihood of his existence. And several people here have put their own probability on that with some saying 60:40, others saying 70:30, and I think at least one said 90% probability of Jesus existing.

And as noted above, almost everyone on the HJ side has supported those 50%+ positions by constantly appealing to the authority of academics such as Bart Ehrman and Dominic Crossan, who in fact insist that the evidence is so good as to make the existence not merely 51%, 60%, 70% or 90%, but in fact 100% absolutely “certain”.

So there is a rather obvious “disconnect” there in the logic of people here who on the one hand have repeatedly said (literally hundreds of times in these HJ threads) that sceptics here are not fit to question the expert assessment of Bible scholars like Ehrman and Crossan (and/or any of the other half dozen or so scholars that have been named and discussed here), and yet when asked about the statement of 100% certainty by these bible scholars, the HJ proponents here themselves reject that expert opinion and say that the evidence only supports 51% - 90% likelihood of a HJ. IOW - the HJ side is also rejecting the expert conclusion of what Bart Ehrman assures us is quote “almost every properly trained scholar on the planet”.

But far worse than that seeming illogicality - when asked what evidence these bible scholars present to conclude that Jesus existed, nobody here can cite any clear-cut statement of reliable & credible evidence cited by any of these bible scholars. And in fact the two main pieces of evidence cited by Ehrman are (1)that he believes the bible when it says that Paul met “James the Lords Brother”, and (2)that Jesus is exceptionally well “attested” for any figure in ancient history, because there exist no less than 7 “Independent” attestations, those being Paul, g-Mark, G-Mathew, G-Luke, and the hypothetical writings called Q, M, and L … he says those are all independent attestations to a real Jesus, and that level of attestation is strong evidence for his existence. Dominic Crossan has similarly said that (quoting roughly from memory) “the crucifixion of Jesus is just about the most certain fact in all of history”.

So that is supposed to be the main evidence which is presented by Bible scholars like Ehrman and Crossan. And that is supposed to be the sort of unassailable expert assessment which sceptics here are unfit to question, and for which sceptics here have been repeatedly accused of being “liar, lying, uneducated, idiot, dishonest, moron…”.

Couple points. The reason people refer to Ehrman and Crossan is because they are the most famous/popular popularizers of this information. I could also mention Burton Mack, even though I think his work is way off base, and others. The fact that people mention those names does not indicate those people accept completely all the arguments those people propose. If Crossan is 100% certain that an historical Jesus existed, I say bully for him. I am not that certain; but that will not stop me from mentioning his name as a source for the analyses. These people are how amateurs learn about this stuff.

Second, yes, the references in Paul, Josephus, and the various proposed sources for the gospels are the reason why most people think an historical Jesus existed. Is there a reason why I should doubt that Paul met Jesus' brother and Cephas? Because I'll tell you my intro into this subject -- I was someone who thought the stories were Paul's invention and the religion was Paul's invention. There are scads of evidence in his letters to support the idea. Unfortunately, there are little niggling bits of evidence that don't fit the idea -- like Paul specifically mentioning that he learned the info from others and that he met Jesus' brother and Cephas.

The one thing I can credit Bart Ehrman for is pointing this out and changing my mind.

So, I ask again -- is there a credible reason I should throw out the evidence that does not fit? ignore Paul saying he met Jesus" brother? This is precisely how academics get themselves in trouble -- by ignoring evidence.







There might always be some truthful elements in any story no matter how tainted the entire story is with persistent and proven fictions being presented on every page. But the problem with any testimony like that is that the huge number of persistent fictions makes the entire work completely unreliable as a source. And especially so when none of those sources ever claimed to have known any messiah called Jesus, when they could not quote any known person who ever wrote to confirm that they had ever met Jesus, and where none of it is known from any original writing by any of those named people anyway, but instead only known from what even more unknown religious copyists wrote as copies made centuries later. That is not a reliable source by any stretch of any objective imagination.


Again, it depends on what one wants to glean from the information. I must point out one issue first, though. You chide the HJ side, apparently, for quoting someone who is 100% certain that Jesus existed (even though many in the debate say that they are not 100% certain), and then you say that the bibilical material is completely unreliable. I'm afraid I have an aversion to absolutes unless they are logical contradictions.

Completely unreliable does not exist in my world.

And even the most unreliable sources can speak truth. We could do a Bayesian analysis on the ravings of a schizophrenic who just happens to have passed you on the street muttering about meeting George Bush who told him the world would end in 20 minutes. You look around, see no sign of George Bush, see no Secret Service personnel and walk around the corner -- and dang it if George Bush is not sitting there with a donor. Turn around and notice the ear piece on the guy standing by the building and you think to yourself -- so that is what the Secret Service really look like.

I'll address the rest when I have time later today.
 
There might always be some truthful elements in any story no matter how tainted the entire story is with persistent and proven fictions being presented on every page. But the problem with any testimony like that is that the huge number of persistent fictions makes the entire work completely unreliable as a source. And especially so when none of those sources ever claimed to have known any messiah called Jesus, when they could not quote any known person who ever wrote to confirm that they had ever met Jesus, and where none of it is known from any original writing by any of those named people anyway, but instead only known from what even more unknown religious copyists wrote as copies made centuries later. That is not a reliable source by any stretch of any objective imagination.


I have to strongly disagree with that. Persistent fictions do not invalidate any 'truths' within a work. We simply have to search for some sort of corroboration outside the work. To use the Harry Potter example again -- we have outside confirmation of cars, so the mention of cars within Harry Potter -- all else being fiction -- is supported.

With the Jesus material we have very little even possibly reliable material. What we do have is mention of James, brother of Jesus in Paul and outside confirmation (likely) of this same person (James) in Josephus. Not much, but it is there. It is enough to convince me, along with Paul's mention that he learned about the 'religion' from others that he did not invent it himself.

The problem is that is the most reliable thing we have about an historical Jesus and it is a pittance.



I am not familiar with the stories of Sherlock Holmes, and I don’t know who Joseph Bell was. But presumably you are saying that there is good evidence for the existence of a real person named Joseph Bell?

OK, so where is the real person behind the Jesus stories? Where is the evidence (comparable to your example of Joseph Bell), of the known real person behind the Jesus beliefs?

Actually, I can give you a very clear answer to that myself, and it’s an answer which has been spelt out by all sceptics in these HJ threads, and spelt out in all sceptic books ever written about Jesus. And that answer is that the actual story behind Paul’s Jesus and Jesus beliefs written in the gospels, is in fact the Old Testament prophecy of a messiah stretching back many centuries before any NT biblical writers were even born. That of course was never a real person such as Mr Bell, but it was a very real religious belief held by everyone in that region. IOW - the figure behind the Jesus belief was the OT prophecy of a coming messiah to save the souls of the nation and raise the faithful unto heaven. And that prior belief is stated very clearly indeed in Paul’s letters and in the gospels of Mark and Mathew … and if you read Randel Helms book (Gospel Fictions), Helms spends the entirety of the book describing and quoting in detail how g-MarK and G-Mathew etc. constructed their Jesus stories from what they believed to have been written in various books of the old testament.

The Sherlock Holmes reference was simply to point out that particular argument from analogy is rather bad. Joseph Bell was the physician trainer of Conan Doyle who wrote the Sherlock Holmes books. He was a terrific diagnostician and was the inspiration for Holmes. The analogy here is that it seems likely to me that there was a person who served as the inspiration for the stories about Jesus. The only likely thing I think we can say about him is that he was murdered. Paul believed he had been raised from the dead and that signaled the coming apocalypse. The religion took off from there.

Regarding the OT prophecies, the explanation that makes more sense to me is that those 'prophecies' were justifications after the fact to explain who this Jesus guy was. An executed criminal is not typical messiah material.





I don’t recall anyone here “claiming to prove the purely mythic nature of Jesus“. Can you quote anyone here claiming that? I certainly have never done that, nor implied or even so much as hinted at any such thing. And in fact, I have not even read any sceptic books which claim that either. Certainly not in the books I have from Wells and Ellegard.

What sceptics here have said is that the Bible is not reliable enough as a source of evidence. And certainly not in the case of an exceptionally important figure like Jesus. Exceptionally important claims do require better than minimal evidence. “Evidence” which in this case appears to boil down entirely to evidence of peoples 1st century religious beliefs as told in the bible, but not actually any evidence of Jesus himself as a living person.


I'll give you a name later when I have a chance to look him up. For scholars, Earl Doherty seems to think it is all myth. Apparently Richard Carrier does now as well. There are others but it has been a while since I have looked at this stuff.

Could Jesus have existed? Sure, he might have done. And I have said that here many times myself.

But the problem is that there is really no reliable or credible evidential account of his existence. Really, none at all. In which case I do not see how one can make a logical argument to say that he probably existed (i.e. as a likelihood greater than 50%), let alone bible scholars insisting that it's good enough to declare 100% certainty, and for HJ people here to describe anyone who disputes what those scholars say as "idiot, lying, liar, dishonest, uneducated, moron...".

The problem is the complete lack of reliable credible evidence.

Correct, there is no reliable full account of his existence, only circumstantial evidence. But that circumstantial evidence is enough for me to think that there was more likely a person that existed and was executed that others started to think very weird things about. It isn't much of a claim and I don't think it is that much different from most HJers. That is why I don't understand why so much has been written from two camps who agree on virtually everything but seem to fight with quite a bit of venom.

ETA:
IOW, I don't completely understand why this is not an argument that quickly becomes -- OK we all think it is possible that he existed but I don't think he did while you do? What else is there to say?


ETAETA:
Sorry, can't locate the name of the person I recall from years ago posting about Jesus as pure myth. From what I recall he thought that Paul invented the religion and Jesus was a purely mythical being. He used Doherty as one of his main references and he used to provide long lists of works that did not mention Jesus but should have (according to him) if Jesus was the being described in the gospels.

So, long time listener, first time caller
 
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All those kings and high priests suffered the ultimate punishment under Pilate, did they?

Your arguments are still getting worse. I didn't think it was possible.

What absurdities you post!!

You believe the Bible WITHOUT corroboration.

There is no actual evidence pre 70 CE that a person called Jesus of Nazareth was crucified under Pilate in NON Apologetic sources.

There is NO actual evidence pre 70 CE that a character called Jesus of Nazareth was called the Christ in the time of Pilate.

Many persons suffered the ULTIMATE Penalty in the time of Pilate. See Josephus' Antiquities of the Jews 18.
 
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When it comes to the existence of Jesus as an historical person the vast majority of trained scholars do agree with his view.

Your statement is fundamentally propaganda [diatribe] and serves no real useful purpose in a discussion where EVIDENCE of an HJ is required.

We already know that there are BILLIONS of people who BELIEVE Jesus existed WITHOUT evidence.

It has already been exposed that there is NO evidence from antiquity for an HJ pre 70 CE and that the methodologies utilized by Scholars to argue for an HJ are FALLACIOUS.
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=mwUZOZN-9dc

Most TRAINED Scholars may be Christians who BELIEVE Jesus was a RESURRECTED being and worship Jesus as the Son of God.

Joseph Ratzinger, the former Bishop of Rome, is a TRAINED Scholar.

http://www.superscholar.org/features/20-most-influential-christian-scholars/
 
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[Roxanne]
As long as it is extemporaneous
[/Roxanne]

Is that referencing Christian's pitiful "extemporizing" in his halting conversation in Rostand's Cyrano before the later balcony scene when Cyrano has to speak for him in the shadows? (I've sometimes wondered if that latter scene was partly influenced by the scene in Mozart's Don Giovanni, when Leporello has to mime the Don's "Discendi, o gioia bella".)

Phil, don't expect mythers to pick up stuff like this. They're not educated. If they were, they wouldn't be mythers.

Stone
 
With the Jesus material we have very little even possibly reliable material. What we do have is mention of James, brother of Jesus in Paul and outside confirmation (likely) of this same person (James) in Josephus. Not much, but it is there. It is enough to convince me, along with Paul's mention that he learned about the 'religion' from others that he did not invent it himself.

You are argument is fallacious [diatribe]. You have contradicted yourself. You are concerned with the claim that Jesus was the Messiah.

In any event, Galatians 1.19 is not corroborated by Apologetic writers.

1. An Apologetic writer stated that the Apostle called James was NOT the brother of Jesus, the Son of God.

See Chrysostom's Commentary on Galatians 1.19.

2. An Apologetic writer claimed James died c 67-69 CE which means that James the Apostle was NOT James in Josephus Antiquities of the Jews 20.9.1.

James in AJ 20.9.1 was killed around c 62-64 CE.

See The Preface to the Recognitions.


3. An Apologetic writer claimed James the Apostle was NOT the brother of Jesus, the Son of God.

See Jerome's De Viris Illustribus.


4. An Apologetic writing claims that the father of James was Clophas and his mother was the sister of Mary.

See the fragments of Papias


5. In the Pauline Corpus, Jesus was the Son of God, the Last Adam, a Spirit which was Raised from the Dead.

See Galatians 1, 1 Corinthians 15, Romans 1

6. The earliest manuscripts of Galatians 1.19 are from around the 2nd century or later.

See the list of New Testament Papyri.

7. There is NO Apostle named James who is the brother of Jesus in gMark.

8. There is NO Apostle named James who is the brother of Jesus in gMatthew.

9. There is NO Apostle named James who is the brother of Jesus in gLuke.

10. There is NO Apostle named James who is the brother of Jesus in Acts.

The claim in Galatians 1.19 of the Pauline Corpus is UNCORROBORATED even by Church writers.

Galatians 1.19 is not true based on the Church writers and Apologetics.

Your pittance has evaporated into a pitiful fallacy.

The Entire NT is a compilation of myth fables of a resurrected being and is completely without corroboration for Jesus of Nazareth in non-apologetic sources.
 
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Yes, definitely agree. Historians do not like to admit this, but their field is not terribly rigorous, at least not when compared to physics or chemistry. The same can be said of Psychology, though it is improving as a field.

Bible Studies is clearly a relatively non-rigorous field by its very nature. But there are Bible Studies and there are Bible Studies. Not everyone approaches the subject from the same perspective, so it is not really fair to lump them together and treat all the same.

A 'scholar' at Liberty University does not approach this material the same way that Crossan and Ehrman do. When it comes to Crossan I don't think I can reliably state if he is a believer or not. He does not think that Jesus was put in a tomb and resurrected from the dead in the way related in the gospels. But he still seems to be a believer. Ehrman is not.

I object to anyone who says that Jesus definitely, no question about it, existed too. I don't see any way to make such an absolute statement.



On the basis of the above (and all of your post), you and I are barely disagreeing at all beyond the level of "angels on a pin head". So the following are just some quite general personal comments -

When you say “But he (Crossan) still seems to be a believer. Ehrman is not” , can we be clear that you are talking there about belief in God? Because if we are talking about Jesus (as we were/are), then both Ehrman & Crossan do say they believe Jesus is a matter of known “certainty“.

When you say that you “object to anyone who says that Jesus definitely, no question about it, existed too. I don't see any way to make such an absolute statement.”, I have to point out that you will in that case definitely need to object to Bart Ehrman and Dominic Crossan, and afaik almost all bible scholars, e.g. where Ehrman says in his book that “almost every properly trained scholar on the planet” agrees with his views and where he (Ehrman) repeatedly said in that book that Jesus “certainly” “definitely” “did exist”.

And on that particular point of such well known and supposedly most academically expert and agnostically sceptic scholars as Bart Ehrman being incautious enough to write repeatedly declaring “certainty” , people really ought to ask themselves what sort of level of academic prowess it is that has it’s most celebrated practitioners writing so incautiously as that in a commercial book which they must have known would be seen by millions of people?

It’s really inconceivable that even the most lightweight research scientist would write anything as incautious and unprofessional as that unless he/she really did mean to express such certainty and felt very confident indeed of defending his/her words.

IOW - that sort of repeated lack of care should tell people a great deal about the difference in academic rigor and expertise that exists within a field like Bible Studies compared to any properly objective field such as theoretical/mathematical physics where, as some here know, I spent most of my academic past. And I only chuck in that piece of personal info because several HJ people here, and one in particular, have repeatedly told myself and others that we are not academically qualified to criticise bible scholars like Bart Ehrman, and that any such remarks I may make about apparent lack of care and objectivity in their work is an “ad hominem” etc. Well some of us have spent decades in far more careful, precise and objective academic research where “evidence” of the kind reportedly relied upon by bible scholars would be rejected as so hopelessly flawed as to be inadmissible from the start.


Regarding the reliability of the gospels and Paul's letters as historical documents, I think it depends entirely what one wants to glean from them. Most academic HJ research does not concern itself with Jesus as messiah -- that is a matter of faith. HJ 'research' concerns if he existed and what he might have actually done if he existed. I think it best to leave the messiah talk to the side when discussing HJ endeavors -- unless you particularly want to refer to the faith community or what the authors seemed to believe.

Even in purely fictional works one can glean historical facts. That should not be controversial. We could use the Harry Potter series, for example as evidence that automobiles exist. We should be skeptical about their ability to fly and suffer damage from a tree whomping them, however..



When you say “Most academic HJ research does not concern itself with Jesus as messiah -- that is a matter of faith. HJ 'research' concerns if he existed and what he might have actually done if he existed” … afaik, there is actually no Jesus originally described except for the biblical Jesus of peoples faith. The idea of a HJ is something relatively modern. But the only evidence for any Jesus, is that biblical writing which does not describe belief in a so-called “HJ” at all. The evidence (such as it is in the bible) is evidence of a miraculous supernatural Jesus … or rather, to be precise, it’s only evidence of peoples beliefs in a supernatural messiah that none of them had ever known except through generations of belief in OT prophecy drawn from centuries before Paul and the others were even born.



I think I must object to two things in the above statement. First, I think it is possible to use the gospels and Paul's letters if one applies strict criteria to them and arrive at historical probability -- just as one can glean the existence of cars from Harry Potter. We could not do that if the gospels and Paul's letters were all that we have, but that is not the case -- which is my second objection. There is extra-biblical material that informs the discussion, and historical analysis of first century CE Judaism also informs the conclusions one can draw from this material.

I fully agree that what Crossan and Ehrman claim about an historical Jesus falls short of good argument. But the fact that they stretch too far does not diminish the argument that there may have been a person behind the stories.



If by “extra biblical material” you mean the usual sources such as Tacitus and Josephus, then I’m afraid that is of absolutely no credibility at all in respect of it‘s ultra brief mention of “Jesus“. We have been through this before very many times, but very briefly - the fact is (apparently) that none of that extra-biblical writing is known in extant form (i.e. actually existing) except from copies made around 1000 years and more after the original writers had all died. And that vast discrepancy in the dates alone, makes any such extra biblical sources inadmissible as reliable writing about a messiah that none of those non-biblical writers could possibly have ever themselves known anyway.

Really, the bible scholars (and everyone else) is stuck just with the bible. And that is quite obviously neither reliable as a source (only anonymous copies available from long after the events), and not remotely credible in what is says (impossible miracles on almost every page).
 
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What absurdities you post!!

You believe the Bible WITHOUT corroboration.

There is no actual evidence pre 70 CE that a person called Jesus of Nazareth was crucified under Pilate in NON Apologetic sources.

There is NO actual evidence pre 70 CE that a character called Jesus of Nazareth was called the Christ in the time of Pilate.

Many persons suffered the ULTIMATE Penalty in the time of Pilate. See Josephus' Antiquities of the Jews 18.
So when Tacitus tells us that a Christ was put to death by Pilate, and this gave rise to a superstition (whether this Christ was real or imaginary), then there is no reason to suppose that this is the Christ of the Gospels (whether that Christ was real or imaginary)? That is an absurdity and I will expose your diatribe!
 
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