David
First, I apologize for mistitling my previous reply. I have from time to time appended the following disclaimer to my posts:
Disclaimer: it sometimes happens that I misspell a username. If that is the case, then it is unintentional and accidental, even if the misspelling is itself a possibly meaningful string.
Perhaps I should include it more often.
About my translation from the Greek is a joke, right?
No, it's the relative dative. If you present the translation, it's your translation. You did say, in two cases, that nails were mentioned. "Where are the nails in the Greek?" is a reasonable question. I can'r find any reference to nails in the Greek there, as I have said. I gather you can't, either. If not, then I guess that's where that matter rests.
They all without exception talk about the crucifixion of Jesus. No any other type of death, as you intended.
No, they all without exception mention that Jesus was gibbeted. Paul doesn't commit himself to any
cause of death. As I have commented just today to another poster, I personally am entirely comfortable that "handing over" Jesus to his executioners would afford ample warrant to describe somebody as Jesus' killers. That somebody can only plausibly have been one or more Jews, and their action can only have been accomplished by their use of force against Jesus. A Jewish writer might have had occasion to comment upon Jewish involvement.
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Example Supose that in a gesture to defuse the Crimean crisis, Putin orders that Edward Snowden be handed over to American law enforcement. Snowden is arrested after a brief armed struggle by agents who answer to Putin. They deliver him into American custody. Snowden dies shortly afterwards of drowning, after questionning in the American style.
Question: If an ex-KGB Russian journalist wrote, "Russians killed Snowden to secure Sevastopol," to a foreign audience familiar with all the public facts in the case, would that journalist be untruthful?
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However, the other posters needn't share my satisfaction. Since I do not know how Jesus "really" died, and Paul, however vigorously he teases, never does commit himself to a cause of death, I acknowledge that what the other posters propose is admissible and uncontradicted until the canonical Gospels. The first I read actual statements asserting Roman involvement in Jesus' death is in
Mark, who does not contradict Paul, but does expand upon him, by a lot.
It is perfectly reasonable to distinguish "what happened" from "what happened according to a named source." The other posters do, and so do I. You, on the other hand, insist on reading Paul as if he were commenting on later writings. He is not. He is telling the story his own way. In his telling, Jesus' gibbeting is something he wishes to discuss. Jesus' cause of death is not. Later writers tell us that those two things are one and the same: death
by gibbeting (after being beaten by both Jews and Romans). Maybe so, but Paul is not our source for that.