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Nailed: Ten Christian Myths that show Jesus never existed

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pakeha
:)

Brainache


Why would you need to see another scenario, when you've already read posts here about misreadings of Philo and his tales of (Jewish) "Anchorites?" Ancient writers knew about Christians in their own day, defined by reference to a Pilate-related Christ. They then read about another group who supposedly behaved similarly sometime between Pilate's term (+/-) and the writers' present. They thought the second group was an early part the first, and wrote accordingly.

It happened. That's what plausibility looks like.

But we are talking about Tacitus, not Philo.

Can you point me towards the plausibility in your post? I can't see it.
 
You can't seriously be saying that the later Christians were unrelated to the ones described in Tacitus, can you?

What happened to the first group?

Why do we hear no dispute over who they were in later texts?

I don't know enough to make a very good response. 64 CE strikes me as very early to have a significant Christian presence in Rome. But maybe they were there and maybe they were persecuted. It would be nice if there was more solid data on that than the Tacitus paragraph.

Your argument seems to be that there were Christians later and therefore there must have been Christians earlier. That is true but how early is a question and I don't expect Christians to be a reliable source of information about that.

It is interesting how quickly Christianity spread to different locations in the Roman empire. It might have been small in numbers but it seems to have become widely established early on.

ETA: I see now that your question about later Christians not being related to earlier questions meant exactly what it said. I had never heard this theory and hadn't taken it in until I just reread the most recent part of this thread. I don't have anything to say about that since I know nothing about the idea. That usually doesn't stop me from pontificating away on something, but this time I think I will let my complete lack of knowledge about this theory constrain me.
 
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Your argument seems to be that there were Christians later and therefore there must have been Christians earlier. That is true but how early is a question and I don't expect Christians to be a reliable source of information about that.

Such an argument cannot be assumed to be true without evidence. It is illogical to assume without supporting evidence.

davefoc said:
It is interesting how quickly Christianity spread to different locations in the Roman empire. It might have been small in numbers but it seems to have become widely established early on.

You have exposed the contradiction in the HJ argument.

At one time they claim their HJ was an obscure preacher man but then all of a sudden he becomes the well known Christus with many followers who was killed by Pilate in order to stop the spread of a new cult of Jews since 27-37 CE.

This double argument by HJers must be exposed as absurd.

In the NT itself, Jesus was not known as the Christ to Jews and did not start a new cult.

The Romans would have been pleased with the Jesus Christ character because he exposed that the Jews were Evil, of the Devil and must repent.

Pliate found no fault with Jesus in the NT which was to be expected.

In the NT, Jesus told the Jews to REPENT of their Sins and that their Father was the DEVIL.


Mark 1:15 KJV --And saying , The time is fulfilled , and the kingdom of God is at hand : repent ye , and believe the gospel.


Mark 6:12 KJV ---And they went out , and preached that men should repent .


John 8:44 KJV ---Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do . He was a murderer from the beginning, and abode not in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father of it.
 
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Brainache

Can you point me towards the plausibility in your post? I can't see it.
Obviously not. Philo's role in an actual mistake doesn't parallel Tacitus' role in the hypothetical situation being examined.

Or, Perhaps you have some different notion of plausibility than "something similar is known to have happened." That is, ancient Christians accepted the credentials of earlier people, known to us not to have been Christians, based on reports about the non-Christians having something in common with later Christians, sort of. That's fine. Carry on.

On the substantive issue, ...

... if there was no Neronian scapegoating so that he could avoid suspicion of arson, then what Tacitus says about the incident is misinformation. So, let's assume there was.

Tacitus cannot be more confident that Nero correctly identified Chrtistians than Nero himself was. The most Tacitus could possibly know is that Nero said that his victims were Christians.

How would Nero know that? Why would Nero be particular about whom he fingered as scapegoats? Nero is lying about his victims being arsonists, but he'd never stoop to calling them Christians unless he was very, very sure that they really were? Uh huh.

An under-class nebbish caught up in a dragnet could walk away from an arson charge by cursing Christ and toasting the Emperor? On what planet is this?

Pliny, writing at about the same time as Tacitus, portrays himself as clueless what being a Christian is about. Tacitus' audience, then, is plausibly interested in what defines a Christian. Tacitus obliges. In explaining to his audience what a Christian was, based on his experience and research, Tacitus is not vouching that anybody whom Nero colorfully killed actually was a Christian.

Personally, I have no great worry whether or not there were any or many Christians in Rome by 64 CE. It's an idea, and ideas can spread quickly (cue maximara to say "John Frum"). But we have no widely accepted standard for what practices and beliefs constituted "being a Christian" at the time, and Tacitus very likely didin't, either.
 
Brainache


Obviously not. Philo's role in an actual mistake doesn't parallel Tacitus' role in the hypothetical situation being examined.

Or, Perhaps you have some different notion of plausibility than "something similar is known to have happened." That is, ancient Christians accepted the credentials of earlier people, known to us not to have been Christians, based on reports about the non-Christians having something in common with later Christians, sort of. That's fine. Carry on.

On the substantive issue, ...

... if there was no Neronian scapegoating so that he could avoid suspicion of arson, then what Tacitus says about the incident is misinformation. So, let's assume there was.

Tacitus cannot be more confident that Nero correctly identified Chrtistians than Nero himself was. The most Tacitus could possibly know is that Nero said that his victims were Christians.

How would Nero know that? Why would Nero be particular about whom he fingered as scapegoats? Nero is lying about his victims being arsonists, but he'd never stoop to calling them Christians unless he was very, very sure that they really were? Uh huh.

An under-class nebbish caught up in a dragnet could walk away from an arson charge by cursing Christ and toasting the Emperor? On what planet is this?

Pliny, writing at about the same time as Tacitus, portrays himself as clueless what being a Christian is about. Tacitus' audience, then, is plausibly interested in what defines a Christian. Tacitus obliges. In explaining to his audience what a Christian was, based on his experience and research, Tacitus is not vouching that anybody whom Nero colorfully killed actually was a Christian.

Personally, I have no great worry whether or not there were any or many Christians in Rome by 64 CE. It's an idea, and ideas can spread quickly (cue maximara to say "John Frum"). But we have no widely accepted standard for what practices and beliefs constituted "being a Christian" at the time, and Tacitus very likely didin't, either.

I think part of the problem is the difficulty we have in picturing a world without Christianity. When we see a mention of "Christ" we fill in the rest of the picture, of course Tacitus was well aware of Christianity's dogmas and we all know the "Christians to the Lions"* mentality of ancient Romans so it just seems logical that Nero would single out Christians for special treatment.


*not a lot of evidence for that
 
Brainache


Obviously not. Philo's role in an actual mistake doesn't parallel Tacitus' role in the hypothetical situation being examined.

Or, Perhaps you have some different notion of plausibility than "something similar is known to have happened." That is, ancient Christians accepted the credentials of earlier people, known to us not to have been Christians, based on reports about the non-Christians having something in common with later Christians, sort of. That's fine. Carry on.

On the substantive issue, ...

... if there was no Neronian scapegoating so that he could avoid suspicion of arson, then what Tacitus says about the incident is misinformation. So, let's assume there was.

Tacitus cannot be more confident that Nero correctly identified Chrtistians than Nero himself was. The most Tacitus could possibly know is that Nero said that his victims were Christians.

How would Nero know that? Why would Nero be particular about whom he fingered as scapegoats? Nero is lying about his victims being arsonists, but he'd never stoop to calling them Christians unless he was very, very sure that they really were? Uh huh.

An under-class nebbish caught up in a dragnet could walk away from an arson charge by cursing Christ and toasting the Emperor? On what planet is this?

Pliny, writing at about the same time as Tacitus, portrays himself as clueless what being a Christian is about. Tacitus' audience, then, is plausibly interested in what defines a Christian. Tacitus obliges. In explaining to his audience what a Christian was, based on his experience and research, Tacitus is not vouching that anybody whom Nero colorfully killed actually was a Christian.

Personally, I have no great worry whether or not there were any or many Christians in Rome by 64 CE. It's an idea, and ideas can spread quickly (cue maximara to say "John Frum"). But we have no widely accepted standard for what practices and beliefs constituted "being a Christian" at the time, and Tacitus very likely didin't, either.

Well OK. I can see that, but it still leaves open questions for me like who these people were, if not Christians.

Have you heard of the Catacombs of Domitilla? : http://www.domitilla.info/

They had a secret burial ground on Imperial land. I think the Emperor knew about Christians.
 
tsig

... it just seems logical that Nero would single out Christians for special treatment.
Oh, it's a great choice of ostensible perps. Who wanted Christians as neighbors? They met in secret, boasted about engaging in cannibalism, their girls were saving it for Jesus, and their demographic skewed to slaves and free riffraff. But Christians could have a bad reputation in Rome, without actually being in Rome in any numbers (like witches in Salem.)

The problem we're looking at is whether Nero had many Chrisitans available nearby whom he could treat specially. The difficulties with establishing that through Tacitus are:

~ Maybe the Neronian frame-up, as told by Tacitus, didn't actually happen.

~ If Nero was scapegoating, then he needed warm bodies with few friends whom he could say were Christians; he did not need actual Christians. Nobody was checking baptismal certificates when he lit them up. If Nero says the Christians did a bad thing, and that the party torches last night were Christians, who's going to say he misspoke?

Even if Nero did take some care to scapegoat only people with impeccable Christian credentials, what were "Christian credentials" at that time?

Ironically, Mark, allegedly written in Rome at about this time (I wouldn't take that for granted, but it is the tradition) has a story (at 9:38-41) about an exorcist, who has no other connection to Jesus, but performs exorcisms using Jesus' name. What was Jesus' reaction? Whoever isn't against us is for us, whoever provides us material comfort gets a cut of our action.

That's a very permissive standard for Christian affiliation, and supposedly I have that from the boss himself. What's Nero's incentive for demanding anything more of his victims? What's his incentive for demanding at least that much?

Brainache

in the 60's? There were catacombs, in use by Roman Christians, and Nero knew about it?

We're not in Tacitus anymore, Toto.
 
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Well OK. I can see that, but it still leaves open questions for me like who these people were, if not Christians.

...

There are all the possibilities associated with the Chrestos thing. I have never been able to pin down anything there to reliable sources but maybe I haven't tried hard enough.

1. Chrestos was the name of a Mithra deity
2. Chrestos was the name of a man the Clausius threw out of the country or something like that
3. Chrestos was the deity in an Egyptian god based religion worshiping Osiris and some other God I don't remember right now.
4. Chrestos means good
5. Chrestos was used interchangeably with Christus.

I would have been motivated to refine these references to Chrestos floating around in my mind without much purpose, but I need to go. Perhaps the early Christian references were to something like this or perhaps this is all BS and perhaps the item 5 is all there is to this story?
 
If that is all that historians had for events such as Thermopylae then the best they could objectively say is that the event might have occurred but that we have zero reliable evidence for it.

(…)

However since you keep insisting that historians definitely do believe that Thermopylae is true only upon the same sort of entirely anonymous hearsay that the gospels present for Jesus(…)

STOP! ALT! ARRETEZ! ALTO!

I have not said this. I have used the Thermopylae battle as an example of hearsay testimony in History because it refuted your claim that the standard for reliability in History must be the same than legal standards.

I have shown a lot of examples of anonymous writings that are studied by historians searching for valuable data. I suppose you know that many attributed texts of antiquity were really written by anonymous people. There are some apocryphal letters by Plato and the Pseudo-Xenophon, pseudo-Dionysius, etc. This refutes your claim that historians do not work with anonymous materials. (Have you glimpsed the Egyptian texts I have linked?). I have put these examples because they refuted your claim that the standard for reliability in History must be the same than legal standards.

I have put the example of the first philosophers because is more similar to the Jesus case than famous kings or generals in History. The first testimony of the Ionian philosophers is Aristotle. That is to say, three centuries after. We don’t know the Aristotelian sources for Ionian philosophers. But nobody doubts about the existence of Anaxagoras or Thales. And this refutes your claim that the standard for reliability in History must be the same than legal standards.

And by the way, whilst you are looking for quotes from those historians to confirm what you say about their claims(…)
…and which make the Jesus case not at all comparable with non-religious claims in history such as Thermopylae.

Sorry, I have not time to looking for more quotes and I needn’t to do so, because I have sufficiently documented my assertions. And I agree the Thermopylae case is not comparable of the Jesus’ existence case. I have already mentioned why. But it is clear to me that neither anonymity, nor second hand testimonies, nor unknown sources, etc., etc., are sufficient reasons to refuse analyzing critically the Gospels searching for some possible historical facts.

And let me write with emphasis the next paragraph:

All of this aside, my argument is not based on the problem of reliability of the Gospels. It would be acceptable although the Gospels had been invented by a second Century Christian. My argument is based on the intrinsic difficulty for a Christian to invent a humiliating and degrading punishment for his god and the inconsistency of alternative explanations. I need only the early Christians belief and no more.
 
I have put the example of the first philosophers because is more similar to the Jesus case than famous kings or generals in History. The first testimony of the Ionian philosophers is Aristotle. That is to say, three centuries after. We don’t know the Aristotelian sources for Ionian philosophers. But nobody doubts about the existence of Anaxagoras or Thales. And this refutes your claim that the standard for reliability in History must be the same than legal standards.

Again, you produce fallacies. You have no data, no statistics, no poll to show that "nobody doubts about the existence Anaxagoras or Thales".

Plus, history is not only recovered by manuscripts.

Please, there are other means of reconstructing the past.


David Mo said:
My argument is based on the intrinsic difficulty for a Christian to invent a humiliating and degrading punishment for his god and the inconsistency of alternative explanations. I need only the early Christians belief and no more.[/b]

Here lies the problem with your argument.

You assume that it was a Christian who first wrote the story that the Jews Killed the Son of God.

Who was that Christian?

Your assumption is worthless.

The HJ argument is riddled with assumptions.

Why would the Pauline writers lie about a scarcely known preacher man?

Because they were Christians?

Please, stop assuming without even attempting to present any evidence.

There is no evidence for any early Jesus cult Christians in the 1st century.

No 1st century manuscripts, no archaeological findings, no artifacts, no legendary fables, no fiction--nothing.
 
STOP! ALT! ARRETEZ! ALTO!

I have not said this. I have used the Thermopylae battle as an example of hearsay testimony in History because it refuted your claim that the standard for reliability in History must be the same than legal standards.
I have shown a lot of examples of anonymous writings that are studied by historians searching for valuable data. I suppose you know that many attributed texts of antiquity were really written by anonymous people. There are some apocryphal letters by Plato and the Pseudo-Xenophon, pseudo-Dionysius, etc. This refutes your claim that historians do not work with anonymous materials. (Have you glimpsed the Egyptian texts I have linked?). I have put these examples because they refuted your claim that the standard for reliability in History must be the same than legal standards.
I have put the example of the first philosophers because is more similar to the Jesus case than famous kings or generals in History. The first testimony of the Ionian philosophers is Aristotle. That is to say, three centuries after. We don’t know the Aristotelian sources for Ionian philosophers. But nobody doubts about the existence of Anaxagoras or Thales. And this refutes your claim that the standard for reliability in History must be the same than legal standards.


Sorry, I have not time to looking for more quotes and I needn’t to do so, because I have sufficiently documented my assertions. And I agree the Thermopylae case is not comparable of the Jesus’ existence case. I have already mentioned why. But it is clear to me that neither anonymity, nor second hand testimonies, nor unknown sources, etc., etc., are sufficient reasons to refuse analyzing critically the Gospels searching for some possible historical facts.

And let me write with emphasis the next paragraph:

All of this aside, my argument is not based on the problem of reliability of the Gospels. It would be acceptable although the Gospels had been invented by a second Century Christian. My argument is based on the intrinsic difficulty for a Christian to invent a humiliating and degrading punishment for his god and the inconsistency of alternative explanations. I need only the early Christians belief and no more.




Well I don't think I ever did say that "your claim that the standard for reliability in History must be the same than legal standards." or that " This refutes your claim that historians do not work with anonymous materials.".

What I said about it, is that we should follow that legal guideline here when we are presented with the gospels as evidence of Jesus.

That is - the gospels are not admissible as reliable evidence of what they say, for the same reasons that such anonymously written hearsay from anonymous sources, none of whom claimed to know the facts themselves and none of whom could be named let alone even produced to confirm anything, is NEVER allowed even to be put before a jury in any democratic legal system, because it's totally and completely unreliable and is not in fact, and cannot be, actual "evidence" of what it says (it can at best only be evidence that the anonymous hearsay authors and anonymous hearsay sources believed that other unnamed people once had some evidence of what was said!). And I said we here should not accept the gospels as admissible as reliable or credible evidence for that same reason.

You introduced Thermopylae claiming that was an example of how historians do in fact rely upon that sort of anonymous chain of hearsay to conclude that such events really happened and should be believed as true, I disputed that and said that I do not believe that real historians claim that events like Thermopylae are true ( "certain" to be true in the analogy with bible scholars making the Jesus claim from the gospels) on that sort of anonymous hearsay alone and with no other credible or reliable external independent confirmation or supporting evidence at all (the Jesus story of the bible is not supported by any other credible external independent evidence at all).

I do not believe that real historians (not bible scholars!) claim that events such as Thermopylae are true, merely upon that sort of anonymous hearsay writing without any other credible form of supporting external independent evidence.

The existence or otherwise of very ancient Philosophers such as Pythagoras is a slightly different matter. Because as I have explained before - what is important to history in the case of individuals like Pythagoras, is not the absolute necessity for the person to have existed or to have done all the things claimed in his name. What is important to history is that we do have good evidence that a philosophical movement did exist bearing his name, ie the Pythagorean school of philosophers, and espousing ideas said to have originated with Pythagoras himself. Its' the philosophical ideas that are important to history, and the evidence that we have for the existence of those ideas as a school of thought from a very early date that is important ... not whether or not an individual named Pythagoras really ever was the originator of any of it.

And as I have said here many times before, even apart from the above, there are various other problems in the case of using the gospels as evidence for Jesus.

Firstly - Jesus is a case of vast importance to everyone on the planet today. The worldwide influence of Christianity directly affects the daily lives for everyone on earth, inc. atheists and even people who have never heard of Jesus and Christianity. That makes Jesus vastly more important than anything like Thermopylae. And the point there, which some here do not want to accept, but which is inescapable, is that we really do need a much higher standard of evidence for the most important claims in history, whereas it is of almost no interest to anyone at all if totally unimportant events such as Thermopylae are claimed on weak or inadmissible evidence … nobody can be bothered arguing about the fact that Thermopylae is claimed on poor or non-existing evidence, because it’s 100% irrelevant to almost everyone on the planet today. But if you are going to make the claim that Jesus existed and that Christianity is therefore well founded, then you really do need very good quality evidence to show that a vastly important claim like that is actually true.

Secondly - the fact that some historians may believe in events like Thermopylae upon very poor or non-existent evidence such as pure anonymous hearsay alone, cannot be an honest or logical or educated reason why anyone should adopt such a ludicrously weak standard to claim that is also good enough to conclude that Jesus existed. Just because there is hopelessly bad evidential practice in historical studies, that would be no justification at all for saying we should therefore also accept such terrible practice to believe in Jesus.

Thirdly - in the case of the anonymous hearsay of the gospels, what that hearsay claimed as certainly true, and what it claimed as it’s entire proof of Jesus as the messiah who should be believed by all, has turned out to be a string of impossible claims that are certainly untrue miracles. So in the case of the gospels, this is anonymous hearsay claiming as it’s central and essential “fact” the certainty of impossible miracles on every page! But that is not comparable with other events like Thermopylae which you say historians believe on similarly weak anonymous hearsay either, is it! Thermopylae and the other events you are thinking of, do not consist only of anonymous hearsay claiming repeated impossible untrue fiction, do they? But the gospel hearsay is composed of that, isn’t it!

So unlike Thermopylae, in the case of the gospel writing, it is not merely anonymous hearsay, which would on it’s own be more than enough to rule it out of all consideration in any legal jury trial, but it is also anonymous hearsay which claims demonstrable untruths in virtually every relevant mention that it makes of Jesus!
 
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I do not believe that real historians (not bible scholars!) claim that events such as Thermopylae are true, merely upon that sort of anonymous hearsay writing without any other credible form of supporting external independent evidence.

But that wouldn't pass muster in court ! Where is the evidence ???
 
I notice your post has zero evidence for MJ.

What is the evidence for the Son of a Holy Ghost?

What is the evidence for the Logos and God Creator?

You must have notice that stories of Ghosts and Gods are typically un-evidence.

Mythology never requires evidence except for the description.

Superman could INSTANTLY Transform and saved the world from evil.

Jesus could TRANSFIGURE and was the Savior of all mankind before Superman.


Jesus is one the earliest Transformer and Savior.

The story of Jesus is found in one of the earliest COMIC books.

Comic books about Transfigurations and Resurrections do not contain evidence
 
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What is the evidence for the Son of a Holy Ghost?

What is the evidence for the Logos and God Creator?

You must have notice that stories of Ghosts and Gods are typically un-evidence.

Mythology never requires evidence except for the description.

Superman could INSTANTLY Transform and saved the world from evil.

Jesus could TRANSFIGURE and was the Savior of all mankind before Superman.


Jesus is one the earliest Transformer and Savior.

The story of Jesus is found in one of the earliest COMIC books.

Comic books about Transfigurations and Resurrections do not contain evidence

That is not evidence for MJ. Fail.

MJ is a scenario you propose for Christianity's origins. That requires evidence. Otherwise you have a draw between HJ and MJ.
 
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Mythology never requires evidence except for the description.
Aha! You mean that once you have described Jesus as a myth, you are absolved of all responsibility for demonstrating that such a myth, of a figure crucified in some mythical non-material domain, ever circulated.

Also, you can dismiss the entire NT as a forgery without telling us by whom, when, how or why such a forgery could or should have been perpetrated. Anything you disagree with you denounce as "Chinese Whispers", whatever that may mean in this context.

All this you repeat in verse-like separate lines of text, hundreds and hundreds of times, relentlessly.

Truly, you make life easy for yourself. But not so easy for the long-suffering readers of your posts.
 
Aha! You mean that once you have described Jesus as a myth, you are absolved of all responsibility for demonstrating that such a myth, of a figure crucified in some mythical non-material domain, ever circulated.

Show me the evidence for Romulus, the God of the Jews, Satan the Devil, the angel Gabriel, the father of Jesus, the Holy Ghost, Adam and Eve.



Craig B said:
Also, you can dismiss the entire NT as a forgery without telling us by whom, when, how or why such a forgery could or should have been perpetrated. Anything you disagree with you denounce as "Chinese Whispers", whatever that may mean in this context.

You can dismiss the Entire Creation story in Genesis without telling us who wrote it, when it was written and why.

You can dismiss the Entire Flood in Genesis without telling us who wrote it, when it was written and why.



Craig B said:
All this you repeat in verse-like separate lines of text, hundreds and hundreds of times, relentlessly.

Truly, you make life easy for yourself. But not so easy for the long-suffering readers of your posts.

You made a deliberate choice to go with the HJ argument knowing that it was based on logical fallacies and imagination.

You repeat those logical fallacies no matter what.

I won't make it easy for you when you argue for HJ using known sources of forgeries, fiction and non-eyewitness accounts.

Those days are done. You must now bear responsibility for your bad arguments.

Let us be honest.

Do you have anything about obscure HJ which is not a logically fallacy or an imaginative assumption?
 
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Show me the evidence for Romulus, the God of the Jews, Satan the Devil, the angel Gabriel, the father of Jesus, the Holy Ghost, Adam and Eve.

No one is claiming that these characters were real, so your request is bizarre to say the least.

However at this point, should we concede that HJ is defunct as a hypothesis, you need to provide evidence for MJ. You have failed to do so until now.
 
I won't make it easy for you when you argue for HJ using known sources of forgeries, fiction and non-eyewitness accounts.

Those days are done
So there was once a time when you did make it easy for people who used known sources of forgeries, fiction and non-eyewitness accounts. A Golden Age, that must have been.
 
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