Nailed: Ten Christian Myths that show Jesus never existed

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Paul had epic seizures continuously at least from 37-62 CE but went undetected till about 200 hundred years ago??

Nobody in antiquity argued that Paul had epic seizures.

Try to read for comprehension.

I said that it had been suggested that Paul's vision of Jesus might have been the result of him having had an epileptic seizure (or some other kind of seizure/hallucination). No one said anything about him having continual seizures for 25 years.
 
Dejudge

I know that you are busy, but could you answer my questions for clarification on page 36; post # 1436 and post # 1437.

Thank you.
 
Paul had epic seizures continuously at least from 37-62 CE but went undetected till about 200 hundred years ago??

Nobody in antiquity argued that Paul had epic seizures.
Epilepsy usually went largely unrecognised as a normal physical ailment until about 200 years ago, and seizures were often thought to be evidence of contact with supernatural beings, the exact nature of which depended on the beliefs of the sufferers and others around them. For another example of this same phenomenon, see http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Criticism_of_Muhammad
Muhammad is reported to have had mysterious seizures at the moments of inspiration. According to Philip Schaff, during his revelations Muhammad "sometimes growled like a camel, foamed at his mouth, and streamed with perspiration." Welch, a scholar of Islamic studies, in the Encyclopedia of Islam states that the graphic descriptions of Muhammad's condition at these moments may be regarded as genuine, since they are unlikely to have been invented by later Muslims. According to Welch, these seizures should have been the most convincing evidence for the superhuman origin of Muhammad's inspirations for people around him. Others adopted alternative explanations for these seizures and claimed that he was possessed, a soothsayer, or a magician.
 
Unfortunately for post mortem diagnosis, centuries on, voluntarily induced "trance" (which is not necessarily synonymous with feigned seizure) has been a part of religious performance since shamanic days. For a modern account, see for instance,

http://uncertaintist.wordpress.com/2012/08/02/a-classic-anthropological-adventure-in-voodoo/

Maya Deren wasn't epileptic, she was a trained priestess of a cult. Her altered states reflect a teachable-learnable skill, not a pathological process. Paul's reports which reach us are sketchy, but there's little reason to think that he hadn't developed some parallel skills, although possibly the quieter form of trance.

It is perfectly obvious that the motive for "diagnosing" Mohammed as epileptic is to discredit his ideas. There is no more evidence for Mohammed's putative epilepsy than for Deren's. There is ample evidence that Mohammed's ideas about politics and "submission" arise from within himself, reflecting the concerns of his time and place, not contact with supernatural beings. There is nothing "diseased" about his ideas. They reflect typical human concerns (social dominance, wealth, and servicing a variety of sexual partners), and transparently helped achieve his goals.

Trance has been mistaken (and still is in some cultures) with spiritual distinction. The more violent variety is also good theater, reliably attracting and holding an audience's attention. That epilepsy superficially resembles some types of trance performance is an interesting clinical observation, but trance also arises in robustly healthy individuals.

It is far more likely that baseless assertion of neurological disease will contribute to the all-too prevalent marginalization of living people afflicted with the disease than explain the tactically appropriate and adaptive thinking of the long dead. It is suspicious that assertion of disease so neatly correlates with the speaker's personal disagreement with the ideas.
 
... Paul's reports which reach us are sketchy, but there's little reason to think that he hadn't developed some parallel skills, although possibly the quieter form of trance.
The reports don't indicate a quieter form of anything with lights in the sky and voices.
It is perfectly obvious that the motive for "diagnosing" Mohammed as epileptic is to discredit his ideas. There is no more evidence for Mohammed's putative epilepsy than for Deren's. There is ample evidence that Mohammed's ideas about politics and "submission" arise from within himself, reflecting the concerns of his time and place, not contact with supernatural beings.
That's right. But Muhammad and Paul both wrongly believed that they were in contact with supernatural beings.
There is nothing "diseased" about his ideas. They reflect typical human concerns (social dominance, wealth, and servicing a variety of sexual partners), and transparently helped achieve his goals.
No doubt that's all perfectly wholesome, but the idea that they are of supernatural origin, if not "diseased" - and I made no such suggestion - is at least false.
It is far more likely that baseless assertion of neurological disease will contribute to the all-too prevalent marginalization of living people afflicted with the disease than explain the tactically appropriate and adaptive thinking of the long dead. It is suspicious that assertion of disease so neatly correlates with the speaker's personal disagreement with the ideas.
It is not baseless, though it may be mistaken. But my point in response to dejudge is this: the fact that people did not diagnose such seizures in Paul doesn't prove he didn't have them, as they were often identified as spiritual events, rather than the result of a physical condition.

My disagreement with the ideas of Paul and Muhammad has nothing to do with this anyway, but is based on the content of the ideas. That the "seizures" were self-induced shaman-style trances is indeed possible, but that is no more creditable (it is in fact very much less creditable) to Paul and Muhammad than the hypothesis that they were involuntary seizures of some kind.
 
dejudge said:
Nobody in antiquity argued that Paul had epic seizures.
Um....I now have considerable pause regarding your ideas of historical timelines.
I apologize, but if you are this mistaken about a very simple capacity, I have to begin to wonder what capacity of proficiency your other ideas are created from.

I have asked for clarification on a few points before, because I did not want to assume you had intended to produce such anthropologically errant propositions, but in light of the above comment...I now do assume you did in fact mean exactly what your posts stated and are unaware of their anthropological errors.

No, this doesn't mean Jesus existed, so I don't need you to scream at me again...but you should learn some anthropology at some point; even the basics.
 
Unfortunately for post mortem diagnosis, centuries on, voluntarily induced "trance" (which is not necessarily synonymous with feigned seizure) has been a part of religious performance since shamanic days. ...
...That the "seizures" were self-induced shaman-style trances is indeed possible, but that is no more creditable (it is in fact very much less creditable) to Paul and Muhammad than the hypothesis that they were involuntary seizures of some kind.

"Seizures" and glossolalia have been part of the spiritual conman's bag of tricks for ages. It always sets off alarm signals when I read or hear of someone claiming spiritual validity via these two behaviours.

Still, the honesty of Paul isn't evidence one way or another of Jesus' existence, is it?
 
... Still, the honesty of Paul isn't evidence one way or another of Jesus' existence, is it?
It's interesting as regards the time of composition and whether the Pauline Corpus was forged as fiction very much later, but no, it directly says little or nothing about Jesus' existence one way or another.
 
Yes, of course you're right.
As a parsley in the butter question, what the author of Paul was up to is fascinating subject.
Were those epistles composed directly in Greek or adapted from Aramaic?
 
"Seizures" and glossolalia have been part of the spiritual conman's bag of tricks for ages. It always sets off alarm signals when I read or hear of someone claiming spiritual validity via these two behaviours.
Glossolalia was another Pauline speciality. Wiki.
1 Cor 12, 13, 14, where Paul discusses speaking in "various kinds of tongues" as part of his wider discussion of the gifts of the Spirit; his remarks shed some light on his own speaking in tongues as well as how the gift of speaking in tongues was to be used in the church.
Maybe the guy was a phoney shaman after all!

By the way, a merry Christmas to all here, Christian and atheist alike!
 
Yes, of course you're right.
As a parsley in the butter question, what the author of Paul was up to is fascinating subject.
Were those epistles composed directly in Greek or adapted from Aramaic?
Surely in Greek through and through. They were addressed to Gentile Greek-speaking audiences to whom Paul was giving instructions at variance with the ideas of James and Peter. Paul displays some knowledge of Classical Greek literature. His citations of scripture are invariably from LXX even where these differ from the probable wording of the proto-MT that presumably was also available then.
 
Not an easy subject to investigate.
Curiously enough the best sources of sources was this blog entry
http://thecosmicpinata.blogspot.com.es/2013/08/skeptic-pericope-obsession.html

An interesting opinion on the subject of Barabbas I read on the infamous monster thread

" 'The supposed 'custom' of the Roman Prefect freeing a condemned prisoner sounds rather outrageous. Rome sometimes went through a great deal of trouble with people exactly like Barabbas is supposed to have been - and to honor a Jewish holiday Pilate (hardly soft-hearted toward the barbarians he governed) would simply let him walk?'


It's fantasy. Pilate didn't give a tinker's cuss about local feelings. Philo and Josephus tell us that Pilate was a blundering thug who marched into Jerusalem under pagan standards and used Temple funds for his building projects. Josephus tells us that he was eventually removed from office for his brutal incompetence. If the fricking Roman Empire dismissed you for brutality, you'd make Tony Soprano look like a rainbow cookie. Such a man would've had no problem suppressing Jesus' followers, as he suppressed the aqueduct riot."

Yet again, the inimitable Byron puts things in their place.
http://www.rationalskepticism.org/c...e-alleged-crucifixion-t28084-20.html#p1135468
 
Craig B

The reports don't indicate a quieter form of anything with lights in the sky and voices.
I was relying on Paul's signed reports. I am unpersuaded that Luke ever saw Paul during a visionary event, or that "Paul's testimony" as portrayed in Acts was Paul's work. In any case, the "quiet" is by comparison with a certain style of shamanic performance, unquiet as viewed by spectators, not the interior quality of the expereince for the person involved.

That's right. But Muhammad and Paul both wrongly believed that they were in contact with supernatural beings.
You know more about their private mental states than I do. I just know what they wrote, not what they personally believed.

No doubt that's all perfectly wholesome, but the idea that they are of supernatural origin, if not "diseased" - and I made no such suggestion - is at least false.
You didn't, but you did mention widespread undiagnosed epilepsy, and offered "another example of the same phenomenon" which told us that Mohammed "sometimes growled like a camel, foamed at his mouth, and streamed with perspiration." Somebody might connect the dots, despite your strenuous efforts to dissuade them. Thank you for clarifying.

It is not baseless,
Your patient has been dead for almost 1400 years, Doctor, and you have no remains. Your diagnosis is exactly baseless.

pakeha

"Seizures" and glossolalia have been part of the spiritual conman's bag of tricks for ages. It always sets off alarm signals when I read or hear of someone claiming spiritual validity via these two behaviours.
Not necessarily "tricks." Good actors can convincingly feign seizures, but there's no question in my mind that Deren (who had a theatrical background) learned to have an actual seizure, for example. The interruption of ordinary conscious activity is what is seen as the "opening to the supernatural." This interruption can take many forms, and be accompanied by many physical "signs," such as loss of bodily control.

I obviously do not take any physical presentation as evidence of supernatural contact.

Still, the honesty of Paul isn't evidence one way or another of Jesus' existence, is it?
Isn't it? I estimate that Paul's writing is more likely to have been found in the possible worlds which include a historical Jesus than in the possible worlds which do not. You may assess it otherwise, but we are past the question of whether it is evidence, and are now dickering about its bearing.

Did you perhaps mean that Paul does not testify to direct knowledge of Jesus' existence, or ...?

I raised that question somewhere in the Triple-thread recently with zugzwang. I don't see where Paul apparently having written "I saw Jesus in Jerusalem back before Pontius Pilate killed him" would add much to the evidentiary value of Paul's writing. It would clarify what Paul is claiming to be true, which isn't really all that murky, but wouldn't better serve as evidence for it, IMO.

(Edited to correct zugzwang's user name.

Disclaimer: it sometimes happens that I misspell a username. If that is the case, then it is unintentional and accidental, even if the misspelling is itself a possibly meaningful string.)
 
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Glossolalia was another Pauline speciality. Wiki. Maybe the guy was a phoney shaman after all!

By the way, a merry Christmas to all here, Christian and atheist alike!

I second the holiday greetings!

Surely in Greek through and through. They were addressed to Gentile Greek-speaking audiences to whom Paul was giving instructions at variance with the ideas of James and Peter. Paul displays some knowledge of Classical Greek literature. His citations of scripture are invariably from LXX even where these differ from the probable wording of the proto-MT that presumably was also available then.

Hmmm. The LXX citations clinches it for me.



eight bits;9717389 [b said:
pakeha[/b]


Not necessarily "tricks." Good actors can convincingly feign seizures, but there's no question in my mind that Deren (who had a theatrical background) learned to have an actual seizure, for example. The interruption of ordinary conscious activity is what is seen as the "opening to the supernatural." This interruption can take many forms, and be accompanied by many physical "signs," such as loss of bodily control.

I obviously do not take any physical presentation as evidence of supernatural contact.


Isn't it? I estimate that Paul's writing is more likely to have been found in the possible worlds which include a historical Jesus than in the possible worlds which do not. You may assess it otherwise, but we are past the question of whether it is evidence, and are now dickering about its bearing.

Did you perhaps mean that Paul does not testify to direct knowledge of Jesus' existence, or ...?

Ah, how vocabulary trips us up, even pot-coffee.
Yes, seizures and glossolalia can be learned, not necessarily faked. Sorry if I implied that by using the word "tricks".
 
Visions are authentications to some cultural groups; the tangent could easily have been motivated by the same social need which provoked the interest in linking Jesus to Davidic lineage.
 
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When will the fallacy end that the Pauline writers were not of aware of the miracle birth when there was a tradition that the Pauline writers knew of gLuke?


I am afraid it is claimed that Paul knew the Jesus story from Conception to Ascension.

Prove it. Show that Paul was specifically aware of the gospels, not just the OT.

Nobody in antiquity argued that Paul had epic seizures.

Epileptic, not epic. Dyslexia is fun.
 
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