What is the compelling interest?
Do you seriously want me to believe that you see no compelling interest in restricting the right to keep and bear arms from those who,
by their own actions, have demonstrated a willingness to commit crimes of the most serious nature or lack the mental faculties to understand the effect of their own actions?
To put it in more simplistic terms would be considered an insult to anyone with an IQ above that of a none too bright 6 year old, but if you are truly incapable of comprehending this, let me know.
Seriously, you just typed all that without ever getting close to answering the question.
It
was explained to you, and in the most simplistic manner possible without being insulting. Your lack of comprehension is not my problem.
Are guns more dangerous than knives? You say 'no', because you are desperately trying to avoid the implications which result from saying 'yes'.
Guns
are more dangerous, as offensive/defensive weapons, than knives. That is why guns became so popular many years ago.
There are no "implications" to avoid. This does not mean that knives are not dangerous weapons in themselves.
Please show me where I, or anyone for that matter, have posted on this thread that "knives are more dangerous than guns". Other wise you are merely attempting to misdirect the debate once again.
I brought up the subject of knives only within the context of their prevalence in the commission of crimes in
your country, and yet you apparently object to the imposition of a similar insurance scheme when the ball is in your court. The relative effectiveness of the weapon used has no bearing on the theory.
You then give me a lecture about 'rights' and the '2nd amendment' (thank you for that), but nothing in there explains why the right to bear purchase arms can be infringed by background checks and yet no such checks apply to any other purchase in the US.
That is because it does not infringe upon the right. No non-excluded person is being prevented from acquiring a firearm by a back ground check. Only excluded persons are affected by the NICS checks. They do not possess that right to begin with.
Is your point that it's because it's a 'right' rather than.... well, I don't know, what do you call purchases of other things?
The same thing we call the purchase of a firearm: a purchase.
Okay, maybe I can see where you're coming from:
The government can't ban guns because they are a right, but it can establish a criteria where certain people have this right removed from them.
Got it in one! Well, actually, you had to be repeatedly hit over the head with it, but at least you're finally beginning to understand.
The government has shown a
compelling interest in prohibiting certain persons from
possessing firearms. It doesn't matter how they acquire them.
The government can ban knives, because you don't actually have a right to purchase them, so because it has the ability to ban knives (but doesn't) it therefore doesn't (cannot?) demand background checks for knife purchases?
Is that correct?
No, it isn't correct. The government
could ban knives if it so chose, or require a background check before allowing a purchase. These laws could be on the books for months, or even a few years, before being challenged (and they would be), but it has nothing to do with the right to keep and bear arms. I would venture to guess that the legislator who attempted to introduce such a bill (and all the legislators who might be persuaded to vote for it) would find themselves voted out of office before it reached the appellate level (if, indeed, it ever even
got that far), but that is not germane to the debate. Read DC vs Heller, and the host of case law that has been provided to enlighten others (and probably yourself as well) who have used this weak argument in the past.
The reasons for excluding persons from possessing firearms has been clearly demonstrated time and time again, with case law provided to explain how SCOTUS arrived at the decision.
ETA: The question still remains, however, why do guns require to be kept out of the hands of felons and the mentally ill, when knives, which on this thread have been claimed to be just as dangerous if not more so, aren't restricted in any way by the US government, despite you not having an intrinsic right to purchase them as protected by the Bill of Rights?
Just
where have I stated that knives are just dangerous when used as weapons, if not more so, than firearms.
If you are unable to do that, then your comment is nothing more than yet another attempt to build a straw man argument.