I don't know how many Jews there were. If you don't know who counted the Jews, how they defined Jews and the geographic region in which they were counted, you don't know either. I'm not saying you're wrong. I'm saying you don't know.
If you're going to use Nazi estimates of Jewish populations you need to know how they defined "Jew." The definition of "Jew" they used for internal purposes doesn't match the definition of "Jew" that Orthodox, Conservative, Reform or any other branch of Judaism uses. Did they apply the same definition of "Jew" in Lithuania as they did in Germany?
These are the things you need to think about.
But I have thought long and hard about these issues, and, as Nick says, I do know. I know how Jew was defined, for example, in Germany, Poland, Hungary, and the parts of the Soviet Union occupied by the Germans, because I've read that Hilberg book you go on about but the contents of which you seem to be ignorant. For just this once I will resist temptation and I will not type out a long summary for you.
After Nick's neat dissection of your sophistry, there is not much to add.
But let's keep trying to get you to make some sort of relevant argument - instead of waving distractions and fluff around to cover your dodging.
Warsaw. I am a bit tired of your failing to have a clue about Vilna, so let's try Warsaw, and add that city to Vilna and now Kiev, the situation of which Nick just outlined for you, as cities you dodge discussing.
If you want a definition of "Jews" for Warsaw, one way to look at this non-problem is simple, namely, that the Nuremberg definition was operative in the General-Gouvernement, following some false starts, as of July 1940.
Another way to think about this is even simpler: the Germans had the police power to enforce their definition of Jew in the G-G and did so in different ways. One way was to establish what we commonly call the Warsaw ghetto in fall 1940. The Germans often called this area, into which certain people were forced, by German coercive power, to live, the Jewish Residential District. We know, therefore, how the Germans viewed the people living in Warsaw ghetto.
By combining these two views, and understanding Nazi power in the territories Germany occupied, I also know, as do you, despite your childish flapping around, within an acceptable margin of error, how many people, defined as Jews by the Nazis, lived in the Jewish Residential District of Warsaw. Or you could engage in more sophistry and point to a few anomalous individuals and declare therefore that you have no idea how many Jews lived in the Jewish Residential District of Warsaw, hoping no one will notice your desperation and inability to tackle the problem you yourself raised in announcing that the Nazi policy was removal of Jews from Europe rather than extermination.
(We can, of course, discuss, in a similar vein, the Jewish residents of the other locations we've discussed the past few days - Germany and the 4 cities besides Warsaw. It was these people, defined and treated as Jews, about whom we have been talking. For the reasons and with the results that Nick explained in his post. There is no meaningful confusion about the people we are discussing in these places. Enough. Your obfuscation is obvious, as is your failure to offer any explanation for the drastic reductions in the Jewish populations in these places.)
So back to the Jewish Residential District in Warsaw, since you won't discuss what happened to the 60,000 or so Jews of Vilna. By the Nuremberg definition operative in the G-G, the Nazis forced Jews to live in Warsaw ghetto, about 450,000 Jews living there when the ghetto was formed. You say these people were subsequently resettled. Tell us where to, when, how, and in what number. Simple. No more fluff about European demography or embarrassing attempts to obfuscate by asking for well-known information. Just a simple reply to what happened to the 450,000 people living in the Jewish Residential District in 1940.
You are failing miserably. Your attempts to distract are patently obvious tactics you hope will allow you to escape giving an answer to straightforward questions, ones that follow logically from your own posts. Readers here recall that you tried the same tactics with the Jaeger Report. The question for denial, which you have raised, is whether it has any case at all to make. It appears not.
By the way, if you would like to know what Himmler would have done with your definitional niceties, he would have told you that the SS was about getting on with getting rid of Jews, and were not to be slowed down by metaphysical disputes, as he wrote in July 1942 to Gottlob Berger about the re-writing of the Nuremberg definitions by the Ministry for Eastern Occupied Territories, "I request urgently that no ordinance be issued about the concept of 'Jew.' With all these foolish definitions we are only tying our hands. The occupied eastern territories will be cleared of Jews. The implementation of this very hard order has been placed on my shoulders by the Führer. No one can release me from this responsibility in any case. I forbid all interference."
Please get on with discussing what happened to the Jews incarcerated in Warsaw's Jewish Residential District under German control. Or Vilna's Jews. Or the Jews in Lodz. And so on.