jargon buster
Banned
- Joined
- Dec 9, 2009
- Messages
- 4,773
No words required
I see that the paranoiacs over on DIF are currently struggling with the idea that a lawyer is not permitted to break the law when representing his/her client. Wasn't it just last week when they couldn't figure out why procedural fairness is important? It truly is amazing how they can take aspects of the legal system that are designed to prevent abuse, particularly abuse against individuals by the system, and twist them into evil conspiracies.
Wow you guys sure love to claim victory without any evidence thereof. I told you I have better things to do, and will answer when I can. But you all jump around and act like me not spending every waking hour on this forum as evidence of my failure. I suggest the failure is those who post here daily. I mean sheesh... get a life! In any event there were some points raised by the one and only other poster here that were not ridiculous or insulting.
Hi JLord! Allow me to respond to your posts.
You said:
The problem with this position, is the concept of equality is actually abandoned. So what if your neighbour can also do the same thing. You are limiting his actions to that alone, and you having accepted the parliamentary system, made a choice which you now deny him, therefore no equality.
Also, getting elected means you are acting as representatives of others, and the law limits the power you can claim to that which your principal can claim and granted to you. I am sure you must agree that whatever power is vested in your by virtue of being elected, it cannot be greater than that enjoyed by those who elected you and gave you your power. Thus there are limits to what you as their representative can in fact do.
It is easy to prove too, by looking at the micro. What if there were only three people, you, me and one neighbour. You and he decide that an election to determine who will act as representative for all three will be held. I of course refuse to consent to anyone acting as my representative, or to be a part of your electing collective. So the TWO of you decide that one of you will be the representative for all three. In that situation, do you have authority to act on my behalf, or not? Clearly the answer is NO. I did not consent to the process or the outcome, and as such you simply are not my representative. As a function of law, representation requires mutual consent, and without it you are not my representative, and since the only form of government considered lawful in a common law jurisdiction is a representative one, (due to the concept of equality being paramount) without mutual consent you are not MY government, though others may have consented.
Your position rests upon the belief that you can be someone's representative without their consent because others have consented, and it rests on the position that once acting as a representative, you can do far more than those who gave you the power can do. Both a clearly faulty.
So I imagine those who stated I have my tail between my legs or would not come back, or that they have somehow 'won' will now recant those statements, right?
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Rob wrote
yadayadayadayadayadayadayadayadayadayadayadayadayadayadayadayadayadayadayadayada
Any evidence for the forum Rob?
Before you runaway again
are you suggesting now people just don't turn up?
Your rules dont apply to me but all my rules apply to you.
Thats 13 words, can we get it any smaller?
A freemans definition of "common law" differs from the universally accepted version unfortunatly.
This is true of a lot legal terms including the word "legal" itself. Basic things like "law," "lawful," "common law," "jugde," "court," etc. are all redifined. This type of semantic argument however is missing the point and I avoid these sort of debates by calling it "de facto common law" instead of just common law and most freemen are satisfied by this distinction. That allows the converstation to move forward with a common understanding.
Its not that they are satisfied with the distinction its because they see you as "on their side" by using the term "de facto", its one of their "trigger words".I avoid these sort of debates by calling it "de facto common law" instead of just common law and most freemen are satisfied by this distinction. That allows the converstation to move forward with a common understanding.
My impression off FMOTL is that it is based almost entirely on semantics. They redefine words and meanings to suit their needs.
The most important is consent. To the FMOTL this means that every citizen must give consent to be binded by laws, regulations and taxation. From this, it is my impression, everything else follows.
The Law. To them it seems common law (or sometimes Gods law) is the real law. But what the common law IS, I for one have asked but never got an explantion for. Statute (sp?) law dont apply to them if they have not personally consented to it. But this common law that remains undefined applies to everyone no consent needed.
Equality. I assume this comes from "all men are equal before the law". But the FMOTL take a fundamentalist view of this. They seems to believe that equality negates all positions of authority. I am equal to the trafic cop so how can he tell me how to drive?
And on a lighter note we have my favorite. "Im not driving I am traveling!"
And finally we have the conspiratory side of it. "Our belief is right and the government, the courts and the police is misusing their powers. BUT if you say the right words they will accept the FMOTL "truth"."
Well this is my take on this FMOTL anarchist stuff. And since they will not consent to the commonly used meanings of words, I dont think that a constructive discussion is possible.
Exactly. The rest of your post is also exactly right.Well this is my take on this FMOTL anarchist stuff. And since they will not consent to the commonly used meanings of words, I dont think that a constructive discussion is possible.
Its not that they are satisfied with the distinction its because they see you as "on their side" by using the term "de facto", its one of their "trigger words".
I understand what you are trying to do, but I'm not sure I agree with the approach. At the end of the day, if you are successful, the result will likely be a group of frustrated FOTLers who just know that they are right, but are also aware that the system will never recognize that they are right.This is true in the sense that it makes them feel as if you're one of them and therefore less hostile. But it also avoids the is/ought problem that the debate turns into if you are going to try to insist on usual the commonly accepted definitions of words. Saying "de facto" is almost like admitting that the commonly accepted definition of "common law" has been corrupted in some way and the freeman definition may well be the objectively correct definition. I am fine admitting this for the purposes of discussion because in the end it doesn't really matter. The de facto judges of the de facto court will enforce the de facto common law whether you like it or not. In my mind one of the most dangerous freeman tricks is the way they do not distinguish at all between what is and what ought to be. They move freely between the two concepts until eventually the mark is believing that because Rob Menard or whoever has made a convincing argument about how the law should be, then that's how it is. I think marking a clear line between what we are saying "is" the case and what we are saying "ought" to be the case is crucial to these discussions and using the term "de facto" seems to be an acceptable way of marking this divide.
But it also avoids the is/ought problem that the debate turns into if you are going to try to insist on usual the commonly accepted definitions of words.
My impression off FMOTL is that it is based almost entirely on semantics. They redefine words and meanings to suit their needs.