lomiller
Penultimate Amazing
- Joined
- Jul 31, 2007
- Messages
- 13,208
Well you read the words, but clearly you don't understand investment analysis.
Allow me to create a simplistic example that will avoid the complex notation and discussion of probability distributions. Imagine an investment where there is (a priori) a 42% probability of complete loss of investment and a 58% probability of doubling the investment. It *sounds* great but ....
Case 1/ Pretax.
For every dollar invested there is a 42% chance of losing $1, and a 58% chance of gaining $1. Therefore the expectation value of the return on the investment is
0.42*(-1) + 0.58*(+1) = 0.16. You expect a 16% return on average, before considering tax. Fabulous return.
Case 2/ 15% CG rate on gains
If a 15% LTCG rate applies then the return applies, that the expectation value (I'm ignoring the loss tax reduction, will discuss later) then the expectation value of return is
0.42*(-1) + 0.58*(+1)*0.85 = 0.073 or 7.3%. Still a decent return.
Case 3/ 35% CG rate on gains.
If a 35% tax rate applies then ... 0.42*(-1) + 0.58*(+1)*0.65 = -0.043, a 4.3% percent loss !! No one in this tax rate would touch this investment. It needs to at least exceed other safer investments. It's a clear loser.
Capital losses can be carried forward for 2 years and in most cases you can defer taking the loss for much longer. While there may be corner cases where it’s a little off the best approximation is to apply the capital gains to calculate your net return then apply the capital gains tax.
Is wrong, but we must consider tax treatement of the losses.
Above you completely ignored losses and calculated return based on the taxing only positive returns. Since you knew this was wrong I have to ask why If you knew it was completely off base and wrong why did you bother writing it?