JoeTheJuggler
Penultimate Amazing
- Joined
- Jun 7, 2006
- Messages
- 27,766
That provision of the 14th is so vaguely worded that I can certainly see it be interpreted the way you have, but the stronger understanding, which I agree with right now (not knowing a whole hell of a lot about the issue), would indicate that the US can't constitutionally default on obligations by choice.
I would agree with that interpretation. . . maybe. I think invalidating debt goes further even than a default. You can default and still consider the debt valid. (Greece?)
But I agree it's about doing it by intention.
A debt ceiling is not equal to defaulting. In fact, it's a self-imposed measure Congress has taken for the original intention of making it less likely to default (by not getting in over our head). However, since we are in over our head, it's having the unintended consequence of preventing us from borrowing enough to avoid defaulting.
But again, I don't think a debt ceiling itself is unconstitutional. In itself, it doesn't require invalidating public debt. It only addresses how much debt to authorize to begin with. (Once authorized, that public debt may not be invalidated.)
ETA: I'm just basing my distinction between default and invalidate on regular usage. If anyone knows if these are terms of art with more specific meanings, I'd love to hear. I'm thinking this part of the 14th Amendment was primarily drafted out of fear that the U.S. might not respect its war debts and pension commitments. Congress can't declare that since it was a time of emergency, those debts are invalid and those papers will no longer be honored, or any such.
ETA: Saying that a debt ceiling forces a default is no more valid than saying a debt ceiling forces an increase in taxes.
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