Gday,
And some have brought up discrepancies, but as pointed out that is normal for eyewitnesses
Eye-witnesses?
Why is that no Christian actually claimed to BE an eye-witness?
In most religions it gives credibility and power to be close to the founders, to have MET him, to have BEEN there, to have SEEN it etc.
But not Christianity - the earliest Christians do NOT claim to have met a historical Jesus. The only 1st hand claims we DO have are of spiritual experiences and appearances of visions.
Anyway -
Here is my analysis of the usual claims :
The Alleged eye-witnesses to Jesus.
G.John - Prologue
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God; this one was in the beginning with God; all things through him did happen, and without him happened not even one thing that hath happened. In him was life, and the life was the light of men, and the light in the darkness did shine, and the darkness did not perceive it.
... And the Word became flesh, and did tabernacle among us, and we beheld his glory, glory as of an only begotten of a father, full of grace and truth. "
Unknown Author G.John is a book written by some UNKNOWN person. That is the consensus of modern NT scholars. The author does NOT identify himself - instead we have BELIEFS and CLAIMS about the author by OTHERS.
About some spiritual being The Prologue is NOT about any historical person. Just LOOK at this :
"this one was in the beginning with God; all things through him did happen, and without him happened not even one thing that hath happened. In him was life, and the life was the light of men, and the light in the darkness did shine, and the darkness did not perceive it. "
This is obviously spiritual language about a divine being (the Risen Christ). It's part of a spiritual sounding passage so different from the rest of the book it has it's own name - the Prologue. NOWHERE else in the book is the word "logos" used about Jesus. The OTHER part of the book is about Jesus, but the Prologue is about the Risen Christ - a heavenly being.
No clear personal connection Finally, the argument rests entirely on the tiny phrase :
"And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, and we beheld his glory". As if the "us" (and the "we") MUST mean that the author is specifically included. When it fact it could just have easily meant the group in general.
G.John - Appendix
" This is the disciple who is testifying to these things and has written them, and we know that his testimony is true."
This is part of a chapter that was later added to this Gospel, and it is clearly someone else making a claim for the book. It most certainly does not even come close to specific claim that anyone personally met Jesus.
1 John
That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked at and our hands have touched —this we proclaim concerning the Word of life. 2The life appeared; we have seen it and testify to it, and we proclaim to you the eternal life, which was with the Father and has appeared to us. 3We proclaim to you what we have seen and heard, so that you also may have fellowship with us. And our fellowship is with the Father and with his Son, Jesus Christ. 4We write this to make our[a] joy complete.
He starts with "that which was from the beginning" - that's not a historical Jesus. What he saw and looked at and touched - but what? No mention of a historical Jesus there. He "proclaims concerning the Word of Life" - so it's about the "Word of Life" - something divine, but certainly not a historical Jesus. What he proclaims is "the eternal life" which "appeared to him". That's the key passage - the
word of life appeared to the writer. The Greek is "ephanerothe", meaning a vision or appearance or apparition.
So the writer had a vision or apparition of the Word of Life. Just like Paul. Certainly not a historical Jesus.
G.Luke.
"Since many have undertaken to compile a narrative of the events that have been fulfilled among us,
just as those who were eye-witnesses from the beginning and ministers of the word have handed them down to us,"
I too have decided, after investigating everything accurately anew, to write it down in an orderly sequence for you, most excellent Theophilus, so that you may realize the certainty of the teachings you have received."
Does Luke actually claim to be an eye-witness? No.
Does Luke actually claim to have spoken to eye-witnesses? No.
Does Luke actually identify any eye-witness? No.
Does Luke directly connect his writings with the eye-witnesses? No.
All that he says about eye-witnesses amounts to :
"Many have written a narrative about the events based on what the eye-witnesses handed down to us." No connection is made between the eye-witnesses and Luke or his writings.
THEN Luke describes his OWN VERSION :
"after investigating everything accurately anew, to write it down in an orderly sequence for you" NO mention of eye-witnesses here, merely the claim his version is ACCURATE and ORDERLY. So, the use of the word "eye-witnesses" has no bearing on Luke's writing.
2 Peter
1.16 For we have not followed cunningly devised fables, when we made known unto you the power and coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, but were eyewitnesses of his majesty. For he received from God the Father honour and glory, when there came such a voice to him from the excellent glory, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased. And this voice which came from heaven we heard, when we were with him in the holy mount.
Here we see Peter directly claim to have witnessed Jesus' transfiguration. The ONE and ONLY such direct personal claim in the entire NT.
But -
2 Peter is the very latest and most suspect book in the whole NT - scholars agree it is a forgery, so do many Christians, ancient and modern. A late and deliberate forgery that claims NOT to be based on "cunningly devised fables" - probably in direct response to critics claim of exactly that. THAT is the one single book that contains a claim to have met Jesus.
Kapyong