So you're claiming that issuing permits for fishing isn't a function of government. That controlling land, including farm land, is not a function of government.
Where does Israel issue fishing permits? And again, how does not being able to fish the extra few kilometers take away any function of government? Palestinians can still fish off the coast.
As the above link I gave Wildcat shows: even the Israeli government admits it has a buffer zone.
And where is a buffer zone in a DMZ, also applicable on Israel's side, as prerequisite for occupation?
So your article is built on a false premise. Now wonder, then, that they and you are confused by things like this:
As is your narrow concept of 'authority' and how occupation is applicable to controlling a portion of ones internal waters or even ones airspace. By that line of thought, even Egypt is occupying Gaza by controlling a portion of the overlapping internal waters between Gaza and Egpyt.
The fact of the matter is with agreements written out in Oslo and Gaza-Jericho 1994 stipulate that the PA should be (and has been practiced in part prior to Hamas's takeover in 2007) of Gaza's airspace and internal waters. Since Hamas took over, a belligerent, non-state entity and terrorist group, with a extensive list of smuggling weapons via the sea, Israel is justified according to San remo, allowed to set up a naval blockade to thwart this smuggling. There's more than enough reason why the UN has found no legal avenue to argue or label said naval blockade as illegal. And neither has there been a legal argument that stands up to scrutiny that said naval blockade is a form of occupation according to international law/statutes.
None.
All of which should end the discussion. Because that IS the legal status of Gaza -- like it or not, agree with it or not.
I disagree with you entirely and I support the reassessment of the status of Gaza as supported in the paper linked based on the legal arguments named at length in the paper linked.
That happened. So Gaza became occupied. It is still occupied, because Israel has not given up all control of Gaza. Who else has succeeded in turning an occupation into a blockade? Wildcat could think of no-one -- and he likes to make wild guesses.
The occupation ended the moment Hamas took over all functions of government with the unilateral withdrawal of IDF forces. You can keep beating your head against the wall to assert that Israel has a perpetual responsibility to Gaza based on the justified naval blockade and a buffer zone between Israel and Gaza.
No, it isn't. The UN, US, EU etc are not 'certain websites'.
Who says that the official status of Gaza named on these websites is not based off of the outdated status the UN continues to use? Still a fallacious argument.
How does that change the fact that Israel maintains the buffer zone?
How does a buffer zone change this argument? Perhaps you could point out where this buffer zone, which has existed since post-'73, is a form of 'occupation'. Or perhaps how a buffer zone in a DMZ is unique to the situation between Israel and Gaza.