Because it disconfirms, to an extremely high degree, the null hypothesis of random chance.
No it doesn't. Any particular sequence of numbers has the same odds.
Yes it does. Some particular sequences are much more probable given cheating than random chance. For example, suppose you rollend a ten sided die and got the following result:
31415926535897932384
Only an idiot would think it was a fair die/toss, correct? But that result is just as likely as any other. What makes it special is that it is one of a small set of results we expect if someone is cheating.
To put it another way, there are many, many combinations that are consistent with random chance.
to put it another way: how do you sort out those sequences of numbers that are consistent with random chance from those that are not consistent?
Because if someone is going to go to the trouble of rigging a "random" event, there are only a few plausible ways they would go about doing it.
However, the set of combinations that is consistent with cheating is much smaller. So when we see a result that belongs to the set that is consistent with cheating, a bunch of red flags go off.
You are saying, for example, that there is only one way of getting HHHHH, and many ways of getting any other combination - so the odds against are pretty long (in this case you'd reject chance at 95%).
5% is often the threshold for statistical significance. In the case of flipping a coin heads 100 times in a row, the odds against are .0000...1%. Very good odds for rejecting the null hypothesis of random chance.
However: there is only one way of getting HTHHHT too. Many ways of not getting it. Would you consider this result more or less likely to occur by chance alone?
That is a result we would expect given random chance. A fair coin tossed fairly 100 times will almost always give a roughly equal distribution of heads and tails: 55-45, 58-42, 48-52, etc. There will be some outliers, but even 65-35 is pushing it. 100 heads, though, is so far removed from what a fair-coin should produce, that we instantly assume foul "play".
Have a look at: The Longest Run of Heads ... when people are asked to simulate a number of random tosses, they always produce one with too few long runs in it.
So?
If you are comparing the probabilities of getting 5 heads on 5 tosses as opposed to any other combination you are right. However, the way the example is set up is properly thought of as a sequence not a combination ... the math for any other sequence is identical. The same calculation will "prove" that no possible sequence can occur by chance ... you need to revise the calculation.
The calculation I have in mind is Pr(H/E) = Pr(E/H) x Pr(H) / Pr(E) (Bayes Theorem). if (H)pothesis is "the coin is fair" and (E)vidence is "100 heads in a row", then Pr(H/E) will drop to nearly zero.
The key word is "cheating". Some particular result is attributed a special value - perhaps you win $1 each time you roll H? In which case, there are many ways of losing and only a few of winning. However, on the strength of the argument posed in my article, I will maintain that you have rejected the hypothesis too soon.
I'd have to reread the article. I was bogged down in the statistical derail. However, if you don't understand how statisically significant results, like a run of 100 heads, affect hypotheses, the article won't do you much good.
If we are talking about 5 successfully called tosses in a row then your analysis would be correct in that it is as unlikely as getting any particular sequence out of all possible sequences. Of course we note that rejecting chance as an explanation of events is not the same as accepting any other particular explanation - which is where other peoples discussion of controls and so on comes in.
If it's not chance, then what else could it be?
It's quite difficult to talk clearly about probabilities. Part of the idea of discussing the article here is to discover where I am confusing people (and where I'm getting confused) and rewrite to compensate.
Sure
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