Ziggurat
Penultimate Amazing
- Joined
- Jun 19, 2003
- Messages
- 64,382
You see this is the type of irrelevant remark that gets up my nose. What it implies in terms of the discussion so far is that you believe that a charge-carrier in a superconductor can accelerate uphill against the gradient which is responsible for generating the force.
I suggested nothing of the sort. If a particle slows down, that is still an acceleration.
Under conditions for which Ehrenfest's theorem applies, you are correct. But in a superconductor the experimental evidence is compelling that the charge-carriers are moving under conditions for which Ehrenfest's theorem does not apply.
There ARE no conditions under which Ehrenfest's theorem doesn't apply, except when quantum mechanics doesn't apply. You have yet to explain why any such conditions invalidate Ehrenfest's theorem and hence quantum mechanics.
Oh yes it does depend on boundary conditions! It only applies when the boundary conditions are such that a gradient in the potential energy function is present. When this is not the case, Ehrenfest's theorem need not apply.
In the mathematical sense (and Ehrenfest's theorem is a mathematical theorem about the theory of Quantum mechanics), a potential energy gradient is always present, even when it's zero. And Ehrenfest's theorem has no problem dealing with a zero.
According to you it must still apply for a stationary wave.
Of course it does. You will search in vain for any stationary state that violates it. Shall we go through the calculations, johan? Want to try the ground state of a harmonic oscillator? Perhaps an excited state? Or perhaps you want something more complex, like a hydrogen electron orbital. Just let me know, and we can walk through the calculations, and show that it DOES apply to stationary states.
Semantics, semantics, semantics.
It's not semantics at all, it's math.
I have claimed all along that the charge-carriers within a superconductor move without accelerating
And you have done so on the basis of a claim which is not true.
The energy increase which is required to move over a barrier without acceleration cannot exceed a time interval (delta)t as limited by (delta)E(delta)t=g(hbar) where the value of g is determined by the equilibrium-energy, size and shape of the wave. For a Gaussian "zero-point" wave g=1/2. So I do know!
No, you do not. That is not how the energy-time uncertainty principle is defined. I suggest you read an introductory textbook, such as Griffiths' "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics". Quoting from Griffiths, (pages 116-118, 2nd ed), who goes through a mathematically rigorous derivation of the relationship so you can prove that it means what he says it means (emphasis his),
"(delta)t represents the amount of time it takes the expectation value of [some observable] Q to change by one standard deviation. In particular, (delta)t depends entirely on what observable (Q) you care to look at - the change might be rapid for one observable and slow for another. But if (delta)E is small, then the rate of thance of all observables must be very gradual....
...
It is often said that the uncertainty principle means energy is not strictly conserved in quantum mechanics - that you're allowed to "borrow" energy (delta)E, as long as you "pay it back" in a time (delta)t ~ hbar/(2(delta)E); the greater the violation, the briefer the period over which it can occur. Now, there are many legitimate readings of the energy-time uncertainty principle, but this is not one of them. Nowhere does quantum mechanics license the violation of energy conservation, and certainly no such authorization entered into the derivation of Equation 3.74 [the energy-time uncertainty relation]."
I cannot "invent" experimentally incontrovertible results
But you can, and have, invented incorrect interpretations of those results.
You just argued that voltage measurements cannot be used to prove superconduction.
Indeed, they cannot. For one thing, they can only provide evidence (not proof) of zero resistivity, and for another, you need the Meissner effect or it's not superconductivity, even if the resistance is zero.
In my experiment I do not need to do such experiments, even if I could do them, since the physics that is used to model electronic interfaces, and thus chips, demands that the voltage within my phase must be exactly zero. In fact, my experiment is the first ever that proves directly that the voltage is actually zero. It is the best proof ever that a current can be flowing with zero voltage.
And yet, nobody believes you. How sad.
How did Onnes measure the resistivity without being concerned about voltage or an electric-field? And since zero resistivity has NEVER been defined before, or after, Onnes discovered superconduction, it will be enlightening to us all on this thread if you would be so kind to give us a definition of zero resistivity: Please indulge us.
First off, that's clearly not correct, as basically ANY definition (even a bad one) for resistivity will naturally include the case of zero resistivity. And since resistivity (not voltage) is what Onnes reported, clearly he had a definition, and there's no reason to think or suspect that he didn't have an idea of what it would mean for resistivity to be zero.
And second, I already gave you a definition in this thread for resistance, which also covers the case of zero resistance. You seem to have forgotten, but what you asked for (and you asked for it before) has long since been provided. If you really care about the distinction between resistance and resistivity, we can extend that definition to resistivity rather trivially.
But to emit EM radiation this need not be so: Acceleration perpendicular to velocity will still cause radiation to be emitted.
No, johan. CAN, not will. I have given you an example where it does not.
Do you know about energy conservation? It seems not at all. Accelerate a charge-carrier from the injection contact to then target contact and it will gain kinetic energy V=(1/2)mv^2; where V is the voltage difference.
This is trivially wrong: the units on the two sides of the equation don't agree. Care to correct your rather elementary mistake and try again?
Another semantic cheap shot. The fact that you can argue thus, does not imply that Ehrenfest's theorem always applies for a stationary wave. Ehrenfest did not consider a zero gradient when he derived his theorem.
The derivation of the theorem applies regardless of whether the gradient is zero or not. At no step anywhere within the derivation does it depend on a non-zero gradient, so it applies regardless of what the gradient is. And it DOES apply to stationary states. I will repeat my challenge: we can take any stationary state you like, and prove that it holds for that state. Hell, for symmetric potentials, it's as trivial a problem as it gets.
You are using "the trivial" in an attempt to avoid talking real physics.
No, I'm not. I'm quite willing to do the math with you, if you actually care, and then I can show you that it's trivial.
I have described the process not well enough initially and admitted that you could have concluded that I am claiming more radiation than the energy that is available. So you do not accept this admission? Once a man has made a mistake you are a bully who will keep on kicking him even after he admitted that he was wrong?
I have not previously seen this admission. Just as you apparently did not see my previously provided definition of resistance (although actually I think you did, but just forgot). So what's your explanation? Since radiating 2qV per photon requires that only one photon be emitted per two electrons (otherwise energy conservation is violated), how do you explain it more simply than the charge carriers being pairs of electrons?
I have since corrected the mistake AND placed the corrected version on my website AND explained it in the simplest terms possible, AND i will keep on doing so in the hope that the penny will eventually drop; even though you have proved that you are not very competent to handle real physics. I consider it my duty to explain physics over and over again until a person can understand it; even when the person involved is slow to grasp science.
It's quite peculiar that after admitting a mistake I called you out on a long time ago, you insist on saying that I'm the one who is not competent to handle real physics. That's a violation of the first rule of holes, johan.
