GreNME
Philosopher
- Joined
- Sep 16, 2007
- Messages
- 8,276
Pitbulls and bullterrier breeds (here referred to by teh shorthand 'bull terrier') are disproportionately present in the study of which dogs displayed aggression towards humans.
By 'disproportionately' I mean that they are over-represented relative to their share of Australian dog ownership of all breeds.
Now, as I've said before, the onus on you for this particular study is to show that some other factor rather than the inherent nature of the breed accounts for this, and furthermore (since I never said that only the breed's nature was responsible) to show that whatever non-breed specific factors you believe are responsible for this disproportionate representation are sufficient to account for all of this disproportionate representation.
You're hand-waving again.
First, you're implying that a sample of 226 dogs somehow establishes breed standards, when not even the categories the study used were along standard breed lines. That's just a flaw in the representation you're claiming, though, because nothing in the study whatsoever makes any claim to inherent danger by breed and is instead evaluating dogs that have already attacked-- no controls, no external conditions measured, nothing implying that the study is trying to determine anything but a correlative summary, which you are in turn trying to present as a causative one without offering any basis in fact or evidence to support using the study in a different manner that it was presented.
This is what I mean about you not having a clue regarding the study: you don't even seem to be able to describe its relevance to the point you're trying to make in a way that fits. You're just tossing it in there and demanding I either accept it or discredit it completely, when in reality it's not even trying to support the claim you're being called on.
