Gandalfs Beard
Graduate Poster
- Joined
- Feb 14, 2009
- Messages
- 1,548
Fair Enough DOC. You did at long last respond to Waterman's post, albeit ineptly (what else is new?
). How about responding to this one:
DOC, I honestly can't say that every point you've ever made on this thread has been "debunked" in and of itself.
But the fact is, there is NO Empirical Evidence that can prove the existence of a particular Hebrew Deity. Therefore there is NO Empirical Evidence that Jesus "Christ" was the Earthly Vessel of that particular Hebrew Deity. Therefore there is NO Empirical Evidence that the writers and editors of the Gospels (whoever they might have been) were telling whatever "Truth" that YOU interpreted the Gospels to mean.
Even in the decades after Jesus allegedly lived, there were at least 3 main interpretations of the Gospels and other texts expunged from the Bible, including an interpretation that excluded Jesus' Divinity (as espoused by Arius and his followers until the Nicene Conference).
Ergo, no matter how you slice it, EVERY argument you have made to further the thesis "Evidence for why we know the New Testament writers told the truth" is invalidated. That's LOGIC for you.
Now Empiricism isn't the "Be-all and End-all" of Reality (depending on the definition of Reality), But Empiricism is what counts when one goes about claiming that they can "Prove" something. And DOC, that's something you clearly have no leg to stand on.
You should have called this thread "All the lame reasons I personally believe the NT writers told the truth as I personally interpret the NT."
That would be accurate, and perhaps once so clearly stated you would see your claim as the tautology it is, and finally realize that you can't prove anything with circular reasoning.
GB
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