MikeSun5
Trigger Happy Pacifist,
- Joined
- Apr 18, 2009
- Messages
- 1,871
The system I prescribe isn't a prescription as to how people "should" act, but a description as to why acting in certain ways commonly considered immoral is against the best interest of the individual.
I don't see much of a difference between the two. In both cases, you are telling a person the best way to act, and why it's the best way. In both cases, the person has the option to act opposite your "prescription" or "description."
In my view, punishing a criminal (be that by jail sentence or a punch to the nose) isn't about "justice" or him "deserving it". I don't care about such things. What's important is incentive. It's important to set a precedent: if you try to rob people, you get punched and/or go to jail. That way, you'll have much less incentive to try it, and the overall suffering is minimized. Thus, by systematically beating up muggers, we can actually lessen the amount of mugging taking place.
Two things: First, justice IS an incentive. Second, as any economist will tell you, incentive can backfire on you quickly. In your example, systematically beating up muggers sounds like a good way to lessen the amount of muggings, but the reality is not always so black and white. We already have "incentives" in place against muggings, yet they still happen. If justice isn't important, then why don't we have any "incentives" against muggings other than punishing them afterwards? Why not a cash reward to anyone who stops a mugging or alerts a policeman? Cash reward to anyone who escorts a person through a sketchy area at night? Programs to clean up sketchy areas? Also, as mentioned earlier, the precedent it looks like you're trying to establish seems to revolve around not getting caught.
Anyway, the point of the thread isn't really whether or not objective morality is a good thing, but whether or not it exists. Can you give me a set of moral rules that is objective, and explain why those rules apply in all situations and all people?
(Also note that "objective morals" doesn't mean "morals accepted by the majority of people" but "morals independent of people and their opinions". Basically, you can't base an objective moral code on opinions, or even outcomes; it has to be based on natural laws or irrefutable logic.)
So I guess this thread's finished now, right?
