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The fine tuning argument

David i do not need you to entice enigma and his derogatory nature. You can believe all you want about my knowledge of physics, but if you are going to refute everything i say without little thought into the matter, it's yourself only you are not being fair too.

Also, two more things. I take it that you are asking me to define the wave function before Planck Scales? Cannot be done so far. And the man i recited is in fact A PhD, so i am quite assured i am not taking things ''willy nilly.''

ps. keep all personal attacks to yourself. Reported.

So you can't describe the wave function so you don't know what it is, which is what I asked you. say saying that it has infinite possibilities is a problem.

You imagine too much, you need to stick to my comments, you got snotty, I got snotty back.

You made a claim you can't support and just because someone witha PhD says something does not make it so.
 
Also, David, assuming the wave function did not have control over the initial beginnings, means we are ultimately being biased, that somehow the laws of quantum mechanics do not apply to the very initial beginning, which is ridiculous.

"please tell me what you know about the wave function prior to t=~1/10^40 sec. Please in detail.

Don't refer me to vague speculation, show me where you know the value was infinity."

You made a claim you can't support.
 
"please tell me what you know about the wave function prior to t=~1/10^40 sec. Please in detail.

Don't refer me to vague speculation, show me where you know the value was infinity."

You made a claim you can't support.

Would you answer a question of mine first, it may help me respond to your own easier.

Do you know anything about the wave function?

Is the wave function the thing which governs probabilities? Does not this field of probability initiate a smear of possibilities over an infinite amount of space, with many of the possible locations are highly unlikely? Does the wave function govern such a superpositioning?

If yes to all of them, then the universe had to initiate quantum mechanics in the fold. Quantum mechanics never just ''suddenly'' appeared a few thousand of years after big bang, but the laws of quantum mechanics dictates the universe, even from the very first instant - which was [latex]10^{-44}[/latex], which is a chronon.


ps/ I think i have supported my claim quite well. I've not only given your ignorance a reference, but i have also shown above why quantum mechanics and statistical fields work the way they do, and why the beginning of time can be no different.
 
Quantum mechanics does not, in fact, apply to a lot of things -- it's incomplete. Ridiculous is making assumptions and trying to force theories to do things they aren't qualified to do. For instance, assuming that time (and the universe!) began at the start of the big bang. Not only can that not be shown, it can't be shown that time or the universe had a beginning. Too many people make the assumption that what we see is all there is. "Universe" might be a fine word for all we can see, but it has a deeper meaning as "all there is". Conflating one with the other is illogical.

And time is very poorly understood.

This whole conversation is of the angels on the head of a pin variety, and the fact that so many physicists and cosmologists and otherwise genuine scientists choose to operate beyond the ability of the tools they're using doesn't help matters one bit.

The most inane (and relevant) piece here is this weird assumption that the rules of the universe are somehow "randomly" determined at the "start". First, nothing is random, ever. Causation doesn't allow it. Second, causation also doesn't allow for a beginning. If ever there was a need to invoke Ockham's Razor, it's in cosmology. There has never been a documented case of an uncaused event, nor has a need for one ever been demonstrated.

All the probability business in QM stems from the need to make intelligent guesses in the absence of concrete data due to the impossibility of obtaining that data. It was never intended to be interpreted in the ways that most people seem to want to. The words "I don't know" are very difficult for those of faith and science alike to say.


Half of this is irrelevent to the main discussion. However, in logic, quantum mechanics aim is to explain everything, whether you like that or not.
 
I'm sorry, but you fail Probability 101.

The standard (maybe overused) example is flipping a fair coin. “Fair” means, technically, that the probability of heads on a given flip is 50%, and the probability of tails on a given flip is 50%. This doesn't mean that every other flip will give a head — after all, three heads in a row is no surprise. Five heads in a row would be more surprising, and when you've seen twenty heads in a row you're sure that something fishy is going on.

http://math.arizona.edu/~kerl/doc/prbstat/prbstat.html

Soooooo, if we're sure something's fishy after 20 heads in a row, 45+ heads in a row must make us what? Less suspicious? :rolleyes:

Here's a better one. The numbers in a lottery come out in this order:

314159265358979323846264338

A fair lottery, or was it rigged? Hmmmmmmmm...
 
The standard (maybe overused) example is flipping a fair coin. “Fair” means, technically, that the probability of heads on a given flip is 50%, and the probability of tails on a given flip is 50%. This doesn't mean that every other flip will give a head — after all, three heads in a row is no surprise. Five heads in a row would be more surprising, and when you've seen twenty heads in a row you're sure that something fishy is going on.

http://math.arizona.edu/~kerl/doc/prbstat/prbstat.html

Soooooo, if we're sure something's fishy after 20 heads in a row, 45+ heads in a row must make us what? Less suspicious? :rolleyes:

Here's a better one. The numbers in a lottery come out in this order:

314159265358979323846264338

A fair lottery, or was it rigged? Hmmmmmmmm...

So, if someone offered you a two lottery tickets, one with the numbers 2,3,4,5,6,7,8 on it and the other with 21,3,45,6,7,16,33, would you have a preference for which one you took? And why?
 
Would you answer a question of mine first, it may help me respond to your own easier.

Do you know anything about the wave function?
Enough to lnow I don't know much. But you have still made a claim about the potential of the universe at a time that is not understood, so to say that there were an infinite number of possibilities is flase. You can not make accurate claims about the unknown.

So whatever posture you want to take is fine, you and your source can only speculate.

That is speculation not knowledge.
Is the wave function the thing which governs probabilities? Does not this field of probability initiate a smear of possibilities over an infinite amount of space, with many of the possible locations are highly unlikely? Does the wave function govern such a superpositioning?
One can not discuss possible outcome and say that they have X number of possibilities when that situation is unknown, you seem to have already admitted we can not know what the initial conditions were, so the rest is speculation.
If yes to all of them, then the universe had to initiate quantum mechanics in the fold. Quantum mechanics never just ''suddenly'' appeared a few thousand of years after big bang, but the laws of quantum mechanics dictates the universe, even from the very first instant - which was [latex]10^{-44}[/latex], which is a chronon.
And again, that is fine, you made a statement that the universe was one of an infinite number of possibilities. Which is a statement you and your source can not confirm. It is speculation.
ps/ I think i have supported my claim quite well. I've not only given your ignorance a reference, but i have also shown above why quantum mechanics and statistical fields work the way they do, and why the beginning of time can be no different.


No you are speculating and just won't admit it.

Your quote
In the case of the universe, and the wave function which governed the initial beginning, the probability is 1 in an infinity.


And I ask you plainly, how do you know the value is inifinity? You do not know that nor does your source. You speculate.

Simple question, how do you know it is infinity? Eh ?
 
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Enough to lnow I don't know much. But you have still made a claim about the potential of the universe at a time that is not understood, so to say that there were an infinite number of possibilities is flase. You can not make accurate claims about the unknown.

So whatever posture you want to take is fine, you and your source can only speculate.

That is speculation not knowledge.

One can not discuss possible outcome and say that they have X number of possibilities when that situation is unknown, you seem to have already admitted we can not know what the initial conditions were, so the rest is speculation.

And again, that is fine, you made a statement that the universe was one of an infinite number of possibilities. Which is a statement you and your source can not confirm. It is speculation.



No you are speculating and just won't admit it.

Oh, how semantic this has become, quivelling over what is speculation in physics. Physics is greately speculation. But there are many speculations which are just taken for granted, such as big bang itself. But are we not informed by physics that a big bang probably happened? This is the same stance. Physics tells us that the universe probably was ruled by the quantum wave function. It's not unheard of. Entire planets, galaxies and to the entire universe, the wave function governs everything; this is even written in the wave function article i am sure on wiki.
 
The standard (maybe overused) example is flipping a fair coin. “Fair” means, technically, that the probability of heads on a given flip is 50%, and the probability of tails on a given flip is 50%. This doesn't mean that every other flip will give a head — after all, three heads in a row is no surprise. Five heads in a row would be more surprising, and when you've seen twenty heads in a row you're sure that something fishy is going on.

http://math.arizona.edu/~kerl/doc/prbstat/prbstat.html

Soooooo, if we're sure something's fishy after 20 heads in a row, 45+ heads in a row must make us what? Less suspicious? :rolleyes:
So what you mean by your example is that if you roll two coins 55 times and get the results:
Coin A
HHTHTTHTHT
HHHTTHHTHT
HHTTHTHTTT
HTHHHTTHTH
THHTTHTHTH
THHTT

Coin B

HHHHHHHHHH
HHHHHHHHHH
HHHHHHHHHH
HHHHHHHHHH
HHHHHHHHHH
HHHHH

Then coin A has a probability of approximately 0.5 of landing heads and coin B has a probability of approximately 1 of landing on heads.

Yes?
Here's a better one. The numbers in a lottery come out in this order:

314159265358979323846264338

A fair lottery, or was it rigged? Hmmmmmmmm...
On the other hand if you have a lottery with 6 balls picked and you get 31,41,59,26,53,58 would you be confident that this lottery was rigged? How would you calculate that confidence?
 
So why do you have to stipulate that your opponent in the dice game throw only one die and throw it only once?

According to your argument you should only stipulate that he throw only one die or he throw it once in order to get 1 in 6.
No. That's not my argument. I said that throwing at least one six with one die twenty times had the same probability as 20 dice once.
All those two premisses in the argument I presented says you have to stipulate both.
It's been a while, but I don't think I was disagreeing with you about that. I wasn't seeing the connection you were making from that example to our discussion.
Very true. The same goes for the universe - we should examine the die more closely before jumping to conclusions about it's origins.
Certainly. But I haven't noticed anybody here jumping to conclusions about the origin of the universe. We have been discussing the viability of various hypotheses about it. Some people apparently feel quite confident that they can dismiss the designer hypotheses as being unworthy of consideration. I don't. Seems to me just as viable a hypothesis as the others.
I asked you a question regarding that "Are you confident that there was time before time began?"
I'm sorry. I thought I answered that. I have no idea if there was time before time began in our universe. In fact, I have no idea if time had a beginning at all. It's a very weird concept to grasp.
 
No. That's not my argument. I said that throwing at least one six with one die twenty times had the same probability as 20 dice once.
And no-one has, to my knowledge, suggested otherwise.
It's been a while, but I don't think I was disagreeing with you about that. I wasn't seeing the connection you were making from that example to our discussion.
You were asking why I included premisses that stipulate that there is only one agent and that the agent can produce only one universe.

I said that the probabilities would be different unless both these stipulations were met. You asked me how these stipulations affected the probability and I gave the analogy of the dice game

In the dice game the other person has a greater probability of losing than winning if there is the stipulation of one die, one roll. Without both of these stipulations he has almost no chance of losing.

Same thing goes for the universe - if the chances of a life producing universe were a gazillion to one for a particular cause producing one particular universe, the odds would be different if there were a gazillion causes all producing universes, or one cause producing gazillions of universes.
Certainly. But I haven't noticed anybody here jumping to conclusions about the origin of the universe.
You are right, nobody has jumped to that conclusion in this thread.
We have been discussing the viability of various hypotheses about it. Some people apparently feel quite confident that they can dismiss the designer hypotheses as being unworthy of consideration. I don't. Seems to me just as viable a hypothesis as the others.
Currently none of them are viable as hypotheses since there is no way of falsifying or testing any of them.

Whether the intelligent designer conjecture might at some future time become viable as a hypothesis will depend upon whether there can be empirical verification of an intelligent designer. This would only be possible, I suggest, if the intelligent designer in question were able and willing to participate in the experiments.

So we can only judge the plausibility of each conjecture at the moment. But I would point out that a mechanism that can produce the same effect twice is not significantly more complex than a mechanism that can produce that effect once.

A mechanism that can produce the same effect trillions of time is not significantly more complex than a mechanism that can produce that effect once.

On the other hand a mind that can design and operate that mechanism is significantly more complex than the mechanism itself.

So if the choices were really between a cause that produces many universes and a cause that is capable of intentionally designing and executing a universe, then the former would seem to be less extravagant.
I'm sorry. I thought I answered that. I have no idea if there was time before time began in our universe. In fact, I have no idea if time had a beginning at all. It's a very weird concept to grasp.
Well exactly. We cannot assume that there is such a thing as "before" the universe, so we cannot assume that it has a precursor or that it came into existence or that any of these are even meaningful concepts.

In another thread I made the distinction between "has a beginning" and "began to exist". This is not some atheistic semantic trap, St Thomas Aquinas made the same distinction.

Therefore I am using the term "contingent" as something that might be the reason for the universe, without the implication that something which is the reason for the universe had to precede the universe

In other words it leaves open the possibility that the reason for the universe might be something non-temporal.

It does not in any way lock out the possibility of a intelligent designer.
 
Half of this is irrelevent to the main discussion. However, in logic, quantum mechanics aim is to explain everything, whether you like that or not.

The sentiment expressed in the phrase "like it or not" is a good one. So many problems can be avoided in life if more people would simply acknowledge that one's preference in a given matter does not affect the truth of it. For instance, take quantum mechanics. As much as quantum mechanics might wish it were appropriate in its current form to "explain everything", the reality is it can't. Consequently, anyone wishing to use quantum mechanics to achieve goals that lie on the other side of those limitations are placed in the same predicament.

It's funny you should mention logic. It's an all-or-nothing proposition, logic. You can't use it to justify one part of an argument and then turn around ignore it when it gets inconvenient. Scientists are often guilty of that -- that's why there's peer-review. Theists do it incessantly -- that's why there're churches.

Using a tool, like QM, to try to accomplish a task it isn't up to isn't logically consistent. It's dishonest, at best. Accepting illogical results isn't either. Much is made about how QM is non-intuitive and people use that as a license to just accept any old garbarge as reality. But "non-intuitive" doesn't mean "contradictory". It just means we don't know the whole story yet.
 
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So what you mean by your example is that if you roll two coins 55 times and get the results:
Coin A
HHTHTTHTHT
HHHTTHHTHT
HHTTHTHTTT
HTHHHTTHTH
THHTTHTHTH
THHTT

Coin B

HHHHHHHHHH
HHHHHHHHHH
HHHHHHHHHH
HHHHHHHHHH
HHHHHHHHHH
HHHHH

Then coin A has a probability of approximately 0.5 of landing heads and coin B has a probability of approximately 1 of landing on heads.

Well, you don't roll coins, but basically yes. In the first coin there were 55 tosses. 28 of them came of heads, 26 came up tails (that doesn't add up to 55, but I don't feel like recounting. Close enough). This is what we would expect with a fair coin (unless the pattern was HTHTHTHTHTHTHTHT or something similarly strange). Therefore, you would predict the next toss has basically a 50/50 chance of coming up heads.

The second coin is so far beyond the normal threshold for statistical significance, that you'd have to be an idiot to think it was a fair coin. The chances of it being a loaded coin are 99. (a bunch of 9's) percent. Nor is there the danger of a type 1 or type 2 error, as there would be if we flipped it three times, got three heads in a row, and based a conclusion off that.
55 heads in a row is a very large sample size. Therefore, you would predict, with almost absolute certainty, that the next toss would be heads, nor, with so many tosses, would you have any fear of committing an error with this prediction.


On the other hand if you have a lottery with 6 balls picked and you get 31,41,59,26,53,58 would you be confident that this lottery was rigged? How would you calculate that confidence?


In your example, if the number range on each ball is from 1-59, yes it would be almost certain that the lottery was rigged. The odds of a Pi result
are 1/59 to the 6th: 1 / 42,180,533,641
Even if you ran a million lotteries, you would have very strong confidence that the lottery was rigged. This is because a Pi result (E) is much more probable on the hypothesis that someone messed with the lottery (H) than on random chance alone: Pr(E/H) >> Pr(E/~H)
 
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Well, you don't roll coins...
I noticed that later - I had just been talking about dice
..., but basically yes.
In which case I agree. You have good evidence that coin B is biased to heads (or that Tom Stoppard is writing the script).
In your example, if the number range on each ball is from 1-59, yes it would be almost certain that the lottery was rigged. The odds of a Pi result
are 1/59 to the 6th: 1 / 42,180,533,641
Even if you ran a million lotteries, you would have very strong confidence that the lottery was rigged. This is because a Pi result (E) is much more probable on the hypothesis that someone messed with the lottery (H) than on random chance alone: Pr(E/H) >> Pr(E/~H)
I make out the odds to be 1/32,441,381,280 or 1/36,045,979,200 if the balls are numbered 1-60, but basically that makes no difference to the overall argument.

But what if you had 1 million lotteries and they had been running twice a week for the past 30 years? Wouldn't that decrease your confidence level?
 
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Well, you don't roll coins, but basically yes. In the first coin there were 55 tosses. 28 of them came of heads, 26 came up tails (that doesn't add up to 55, but I don't feel like recounting. Close enough). This is what we would expect with a fair coin (unless the pattern was HTHTHTHTHTHTHTHT or something similarly strange). Therefore, you would predict the next toss has basically a 50/50 chance of coming up heads.

The second coin is so far beyond the normal threshold for statistical significance, that you'd have to be an idiot to think it was a fair coin. The chances of it being a loaded coin are 99. (a bunch of 9's) percent. Nor is there the danger of a type 1 or type 2 error, as there would be if we flipped it three times, got three heads in a row, and based a conclusion off that.
55 heads in a row is a very large sample size. Therefore, you would predict, with almost absolute certainty, that the next toss would be heads, nor, with so many tosses, would you have any fear of committing an error with this prediction.

What does any of this have to do with the FT argument? Note that I am not the only person who has asked you this in this thread ...

To make it easy for you, just answer this question:

What evidence do you have that the generation of universal constants is in any way analagous to a series of 55 flips of a coin?

In your example, if the number range on each ball is from 1-59, yes it would be almost certain that the lottery was rigged. The odds of a Pi result
are 1/59 to the 6th: 1 / 42,180,533,641
Even if you ran a million lotteries, you would have very strong confidence that the lottery was rigged. This is because a Pi result (E) is much more probable on the hypothesis that someone messed with the lottery (H) than on random chance alone: Pr(E/H) >> Pr(E/~H)

What does any of this have to do with the FT argument? Note that I am not the only person who has asked you this in this thread ...

To make it easy for you, just answer these two questions:

1) What is the distribution of the values of the universal constants that God had to select from (analagous to the uniform distribution of 1-59 above) ?

2) What is the unconditional probability of God? (corresponding to your H above) ?

And, lest you forget your errors in previous threads, you don't get to use P(God) = 0.5 because we are not uninformed with regard to God. In particular, you are able to pull a value for P(life | God) out of your backside, a fact which drives down P(God) considerably.
 
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Actually I don't think Malerin is actually pushing the God hypothesis in this case - in fact from his point of view the Big Bang never actually happened.
 
Ahh, that looks like a much more elegant way to put what I was getting at.
Ah, it might look more elegant, but I don't think what I've done is all that meaningful (after all, I'm doing post hoc analyses of different things, and multiplying "independent" probability like this is sure to decrease my numbers arbitrarily low anyway--I think I'm one off anyhow... was playing with Pascal's Triangle and spreadsheets, cause it's fun that way--nevertheless, each of the analyses I performed in the previous post were in the range of statistical significance).

But the sequences definitely do not look random, and they look non-random in a particularly interesting way that tends to point towards intent. Running 10 random sequences of length 55 each using random.org, here is what they should look like:
Code:
[SIZE="1"]HHTHTTHTHHTHHHTTTHHHTHHHHTHHHHHHTTHHHTHHHHTHHTTTTHHHHHT
HHTHHTTTHTHHHTHTHHHHHHHTHHTHTTTHHHTTTTTTTTTHTTTTHHTHTTT
TTTHHHHHHHHHHHTTTHHTHHTHTTTTHTTTHHHTTTTHHTHHTHTTTTTHTTH
TTTHHHTTHHTHTHTHTTTHHTHHTHHTTTHHHHTTTTTHHHTHHTTTTTHHHHT
THHTTTHHTHHHHHHTHHTTTHHTHHTHHTTTHHHHTHTTHHHTTHHHHHHTTTT
HHHHTTHTHHTTTTTHTTTTTTTHTTHTTHHHHHTHTTHTHHTTHTTTHHHTHTT
TTTHTHTHTTTTTTTHTTHHTHTHTHTHTTTTTTTTTHTHTTHTTTHHTTHHHTT
HHTHTHHHHTTTHHTHTHTTTHHTHHTHTTTTHTHTHTTTHHHTTHHTTHHTTTT
TTTTHTTTHHTTHTTHHHTTTTTHHHHHTTTHTHHHHTTTTTHHTTTHTHHHTHH
TTHTTHTTHTHTTTTTHTTHHTTTTTTTTHTHTHHTHHTTTTHTHTHTTTHTHTT[/SIZE]
One thing that sticks out like a sore thumb is run lengths. The longest run in the above sequence is the run of 11 heads on row 3... the flattest is on row 8, which show three runs of length 4 and four runs of length 3 (for a total of seven runs of at least length 3). People who come up with random sequences have a tendency to commit a form of gambler's fallacy--they feel that if they put too many repetitions in, the sequence isn't "random" enough, which is equivalent here to saying that the more heads you have, the more likely your next flip would be tails. Malerin's first data set maxes out with a measly 3 runs of length 3, so it shows this property pretty strongly.

It would take quite an elaborate form of weighting for a coin to commit this sort of gambler's fallacy. The all heads flip, however, could easily be the product of a heavily weighted or two headed coin (though in context, it obviously wasn't).

Basically, if Malerin claimed he actually flipped a coin 55 times to get the first one, I wouldn't believe him.
yy2bggggs, am I correct in thinking that the distribution of the two conditionals you mention above will look something like a standard curve, given enough strings of 55 tosses of a fair coin?
Yes.
 
Oh, how semantic this has become, quivelling over what is speculation in physics. Physics is greately speculation. But there are many speculations which are just taken for granted, such as big bang itself. But are we not informed by physics that a big bang probably happened? This is the same stance. Physics tells us that the universe probably was ruled by the quantum wave function. It's not unheard of. Entire planets, galaxies and to the entire universe, the wave function governs everything; this is even written in the wave function article i am sure on wiki.


No it is not semantic, you made a claim you can't support.
 
Can you provide a cite for this? As far as I know even the Bible describes as Hell existing after the complete destruction of the Earth. Most modern theists (as in since 300 AD) would describe Hell as an alternate reality to physical reality.

An alternate reality is not the same thing as a different physical reality.
 
Ah, it might look more elegant, but I don't think what I've done is all that meaningful (after all, I'm doing post hoc analyses of different things, and multiplying "independent" probability like this is sure to decrease my numbers arbitrarily low anyway--I think I'm one off anyhow... was playing with Pascal's Triangle and spreadsheets, cause it's fun that way--nevertheless, each of the analyses I performed in the previous post were in the range of statistical significance).

But the sequences definitely do not look random, and they look non-random in a particularly interesting way that tends to point towards intent. Running 10 random sequences of length 55 each using random.org, here is what they should look like:
Code:
[SIZE="1"]HHTHTTHTHHTHHHTTTHHHTHHHHTHHHHHHTTHHHTHHHHTHHTTTTHHHHHT
HHTHHTTTHTHHHTHTHHHHHHHTHHTHTTTHHHTTTTTTTTTHTTTTHHTHTTT
TTTHHHHHHHHHHHTTTHHTHHTHTTTTHTTTHHHTTTTHHTHHTHTTTTTHTTH
TTTHHHTTHHTHTHTHTTTHHTHHTHHTTTHHHHTTTTTHHHTHHTTTTTHHHHT
THHTTTHHTHHHHHHTHHTTTHHTHHTHHTTTHHHHTHTTHHHTTHHHHHHTTTT
HHHHTTHTHHTTTTTHTTTTTTTHTTHTTHHHHHTHTTHTHHTTHTTTHHHTHTT
TTTHTHTHTTTTTTTHTTHHTHTHTHTHTTTTTTTTTHTHTTHTTTHHTTHHHTT
HHTHTHHHHTTTHHTHTHTTTHHTHHTHTTTTHTHTHTTTHHHTTHHTTHHTTTT
TTTTHTTTHHTTHTTHHHTTTTTHHHHHTTTHTHHHHTTTTTHHTTTHTHHHTHH
TTHTTHTTHTHTTTTTHTTHHTTTTTTTTHTHTHHTHHTTTTHTHTHTTTHTHTT[/SIZE]
One thing that sticks out like a sore thumb is run lengths. The longest run in the above sequence is the run of 11 heads on row 3... the flattest is on row 8, which show three runs of length 4 and four runs of length 3 (for a total of seven runs of at least length 3). People who come up with random sequences have a tendency to commit a form of gambler's fallacy--they feel that if they put too many repetitions in, the sequence isn't "random" enough, which is equivalent here to saying that the more heads you have, the more likely your next flip would be tails. Malerin's first data set maxes out with a measly 3 runs of length 3, so it shows this property pretty strongly.

It would take quite an elaborate form of weighting for a coin to commit this sort of gambler's fallacy. The all heads flip, however, could easily be the product of a heavily weighted or two headed coin (though in context, it obviously wasn't).

Basically, if Malerin claimed he actually flipped a coin 55 times to get the first one, I wouldn't believe him.
Yes.

I easily got a max run length of 4, several times:

1211122111211221121222121221121121212211221111212122221

2211121122121221111212122112212122111212112222112221222

And this was my last run through:

1211211211211222112121221212121222112122212212221221211

Max run length of 3, I believe. I ran the program about 20 times to get the top 3 results.

http://www.random.org/integers/?num=55&min=1&max=2&col=1&base=10&format=html&rnd=new
 

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