Deeper than primes

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The Man,

You have made a mistake ( as clearly seen in http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=4897227&postcount=5055 ).

Do you think that you are honest enough in order to admit it?

As usual Doron the mistake is entirely yours, If you do not think so, then show how your “organic tree” or “On” calculations distinguishes between (B,A,C) and (C,A,B). Claiming that some single configuration of “*”s in your “tree” “= (B,A,C), (C,A,B)” simply means that it represents them both or either one and thus they are indistinguishable in your “tree”. I have never claimed that they were not separated by a “,” in your notation, just that your “tree” and “On” calculations ignore such ordering distinctions. Once again finding yourself unable to address the actual issues raised you simply ascribe some claim of your own making, which you would prefer to address, to others. When are you going to start being honest Doron, if not with others then at least with yourself?
 
It seems like you and Doron do that a lot.

jsfisher,

I see that you did not learn your lesson from aphatia and Ford Circle case.

You continue to spread your misleading and cheap propaganda, in order to increase your reliability in the eyes of the rest of the posters of this thread.

Let us briefly look at your inability to get OM (because of your misleading and cheap propaganda poor style):

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=4768770&postcount=3326

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=4859277&postcount=4201

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=4862772&postcount=4237

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=4865572&postcount=4250

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=4869859&postcount=4285

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=4870149&postcount=4289

In this one we can see your fundamental failure to understand Non-locality\Locality invariance, by claiming that I am changing my position about this invariance:
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=4870178&postcount=4290


Here you show that you are not able the get the fundamental form at the basis of your verbal-based skills:

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=4870291&postcount=4292

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=4870666&postcount=4307


Here is your misleading propaganda with Ford Circles:

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=4872949&postcount=4390


Here I expose your misleading (for purpose) posting style:

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=4874175&postcount=4416

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=4875262&postcount=4453


Each time you use misleading propaganda about me (and in this case you claim that I change my arguments a lot, similarly to Moshe's working style), you will get the hard facts right back to your face.
 
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Just as an appetizer...

Doron, if you can show me 1 point on your 1-dim element that is NOT covered by a 0-dim element, you might have a case.

I say, you can not do that.

Please show any arbitrary two 0-dim elements on a 1-dim element, that have no room for 0-dim between them, such that 0-dim < 0-dim < 0-dim ("<" is exactly the uncovered 1-dim domain), even if there is a non-finite amount of 0-dim elements on the 1-dim element.

Again:

• is 0-dim element.

_____ is 1-dim element.

It is shown that for any arbitrary • on _____ there is • < • < • , where < is possible for any amount of • on _____ exactly because no collection of • elements can fully cover _____


Here is how your argument fails realpaladin:

1) An 0-dim element is not covered by 0-dim element, because in this case we are left with our already existing 0-dim in that position.

2) You cannot conclude anything about another 0-dim by using (1), so you are actually stacked in a one and only one position, that is covered by exactly one and only one 0-dim element.

3) Since this is the case, you need a wider view in order to answer to your question, but when you are doing it, you are no longer in your 0-dim position, and anything that is not your 0-dim position is not covered by your 0-dim position.

Here it is:

___.__

As you see, the inability of 0-dim elements to be a 1-dim element is a structural atomic fact, which has nothing to do with any amount of 0-dim elements on a 1-dim element.
 
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As usual Doron the mistake is entirely yours, If you do not think so, then show how your “organic tree” or “On” calculations distinguishes between (B,A,C) and (C,A,B). Claiming that some single configuration of “*”s in your “tree” “= (B,A,C), (C,A,B)” simply means that it represents them both or either one and thus they are indistinguishable in your “tree”. I have never claimed that they were not separated by a “,” in your notation, just that your “tree” and “On” calculations ignore such ordering distinctions. Once again finding yourself unable to address the actual issues raised you simply ascribe some claim of your own making, which you would prefer to address, to others. When are you going to start being honest Doron, if not with others then at least with yourself?

This time do your best in order to get http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=4895440&postcount=5000 .

The answer is there.
 
Here is another direct perception notion:

Let us look at:

3KOCH.jpg


If this fractal is completely covered by 0-dim elements (in that case n=∞) then there cannot be a room for a "magenta" 0-dim element between any given "black" 0-dim elements.

In this case there is no fractal at all and we get exactly one only one 0-dim element.
 
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jsfisher,

I see that you did not learn your lesson from aphatia and Ford Circle case.

That was the case where you got the significance of Ford Circles exactly backwards and completely reversed the hierarchy of the reals, rationals, and integers.

That was the case where direct perception got you directly to the wrong answers.

Why do you bring it up again? Have you altered your mis-perceptions?

You continue to spread your misleading and cheap propaganda, in order to increase your reliability in the eyes of the rest of the posters of this thread.

Let us briefly look at your inability to get OM (because of your misleading and cheap propaganda poor style):

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=4768770&postcount=3326
Excellent example of Doron simply believing what he wants to believe, ignoring any facts by dismissing them as mere notation.

Excellent example of Doron being unconstrained by consistency.

Excellent example of Doron unable to define something that should be simple to define.

Excellent example of Doron simply moving the goal posts, as it were, and simply ignoring that his OM foundation, which he touted for so many years, was without merit.

Excellent example of where Doron can't form a cohesive argument. Just links to links. The first link within a link is to a post where Doron got infracted for gross incivility, by the way.

We have come to expect that of Doron. When logic and reason is called for, Doron substitutes insult.

Yet another contradictory post.

In this one we can see your fundamental failure to understand Non-locality\Locality invariance, by claiming that I am changing my position about this invariance:
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=4870178&postcount=4290
...and the subsequent failure to recognize Doron isn't consistent in his statements.

...snip...
...and so on.

Each time you use misleading propaganda about me (and in this case you claim that I change my arguments a lot, similarly to Moshe's working style), you will get the hard facts right back to your face.

Doron, you and "hard facts" are complete strangers.
 
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If this fractal is completely covered by 0-dim elements (in that case n=∞) then there cannot be a room for a "magenta" 0-dim element between any given "black" 0-dim elements.

Why not? Are you letting your direct perception give you the wrong idea about things again? Is there some place on the Koch curve you think is not covered by a point?
 
That was the case where you got the significance of Ford Circles exactly backwards and completely reversed the hierarchy of the reals, rationals, and integers.

Here where you fail, there is no hierarchy in my Ford Circle argument.

What is written in page 3 of http://www.geocities.com/complementarytheory/OMDP.pdf shows exactly that we do not need any hierarchy of any kind in order to rigorously independently and directly define the R members.


The rest of you post is the same flop.
 
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Indeed and the answer is there and that answer still is that your "tree" does not include certain ordering distinctions as being, well, distinct.




(A,B,C) case of 3-Uncertainty x 3-Redundancy tree, can be repseneted as:

[qimg]http://www.geocities.com/complementarytheory/ABC.jpg[/qimg]

So the A,B,C ids can be picked as you like, in any wished order.

The representation blow is a 2-D version of the 3-D representation above.

Code:
A *  .  .                                                                               
  |  |  |                                                                               
B .  *  . = (A,B,C) , (C,B,A)                                                           
  |  |  |                                                                               
C .__.__*                                                                               
                                                                                        
                                                                                        
A .  *  .                                                                               
  |  |  |                                                                               
B *  .  . = (B,A,C) , (C,A,B)                                                           
  |  |  |                                                                               
C .__.__*                                                                               
                                                                                        
                                                                                        
A *  .  .                                                                               
  |  |  |                                                                               
B .  .  * = (A,C,B) , (B,C,A)                                                           
  |  |  |                                                                               
C .__*__.

Anyone can pick “the A,B,C ids” “in any wished order.” No one needs your “tree” to do or understand that. However you again specifically assert that your ‘tree’ representation for (B,A,C) is the same representation for (C,A,B). So such a distinction that anyone can make can not be represented by your ‘tree’, at least according to your given assertions. This of course does not diminish form the problem that such and similar distinctions are not included in your “On” calculations. For example in your previous post…

Please demostrate exactly how ordering distinctions is not one of the cases of that tree.

You can use 2-Uncertainty x 2-Redundancy tree:
Code:
2X2                                             
                                                
(AB,AB) (AB,A)  (AB,B)  (A,A)   (B,B)   (A,B)   
                                                
A * *   A * *   A * .   A * *   A . .   A * .   
  | |     | |     | |     | |     | |     | |   
B *_*   B *_.   B *_*   B ._.   B *_*   B ._*   
                                                
(2,2) = (AB,AB)                                 
(2,1) = (AB,A),(AB,B)                           
(1,1) = (A,A),(B,B),(A,B)

For “(2,2)” the ordering distinctions of (BA, AB), (BA, BA) and (AB, BA) are excluded or considered indistinct by your notions that you claim are primarily about distinction.

For “(2,1)” the ordering distinctions of (BA, A) and (BA, B) are excluded or considered indistinct by your notions that you claim are primarily about distinction.

(1,2) ordering distinctions like (A, AB), (B, AB), (A, BA) and (B, BA), are not even included or considered distinct by your notions that you claim are primarily about distinction.

For “(1,1)” the (B,A) ordering distinction is excluded or considered indistinct by your notions that you claim are primarily about distinction.

So 6 associative distinctions are included in your notions while the 10 ordering distinctions given above are not or simply considered indistinct in your notions that you claim are primarily about distinction. Thus your notions that you claim are primarily about distinction excludes or considers indistinct the major form of distinction, ordering.
 
Anyone can pick “the A,B,C ids” “in any wished order.” No one needs your “tree” to do or understand that. However you again specifically assert that your ‘tree’ representation for (B,A,C) is the same representation for (C,A,B)

By Standard Math {A,B,C} = {C,A,B} etc … where order has no significance.

On top of this basic state of distinct elements, one can use order.

There is an hierarchy of dependency here where some order of {A,B,C} distinct members depends on the existence of this distinction, but not vice verse.

So is the case about ON's elements order.

But ONs go deeper than distinct only elements and use Distinction in a more comprehensive way, by using n-Redundancy x n-Uncertainty tree, where set or mutiset are some particular case of it.

The Man said:
For “(2,2)” the ordering distinctions of (BA, AB), (BA, BA) and (AB, BA) are excluded or considered indistinct by your notions that you claim are primarily about distinction.

For “(2,1)” the ordering distinctions of (BA, A) and (BA, B) are excluded or considered indistinct by your notions that you claim are primarily about distinction.

(1,2) ordering distinctions like (A, AB), (B, AB), (A, BA) and (B, BA), are not even included or considered distinct by your notions that you claim are primarily about distinction.

For “(1,1)” the (B,A) ordering distinction is excluded or considered indistinct by your notions that you claim are primarily about distinction.

1) You do not understand the differentness between AB and A,B.

AB is a superposition of ids of a single element, so AB or BA is exactly the same thing (Uncertainty).

2) A,B is for two different ids of two elements, where order has no significance in that level exactly as in {A,B}={B,A} case (we can use this clear A,B ids on order to use it as the basis of some order, but then this is not at the fundamental level).

3) We also use, for example A,A (Redundancy of two elements, etc ...).

4) Here is an extension of ONs where also 0 case is considered, for example, let us use

2-Uncertainty x 2-Redundancy tree:
Code:
2X2

(AB,AB) (AB,A)  (AB,B)  (AB)    (A,A)   (B,B)   (A,B)   (A)     (B)     ()

A * *   A * *   A * .   A * .   A * *   A . .   A * .   A * .   A . .   A . .
  | |     | |     | |     | |     | |     | |     | |     | |     | |     | |
B *_*   B *_.   B *_*   B *_.   B ._.   B *_*   B ._*   B ._.   B *_.   B ._.

(2,2) = (AB,AB)
(2,1) = (AB,A),(AB,B)
(2,0)=  (AB)
(1,1) = (A,A),(B,B),(A,B)
(1,0)=  (A),(B)
(0,0)=  ()

The beautiful thing about ONs ( as clearly shown in http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=4895440&postcount=5000 ) is that all these preperties (whether they are ordered or not) a reduced into a single organic structure.
 
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Please show any arbitrary two 0-dim elements on a 1-dim element, that have no room for 0-dim between them, such that 0-dim < 0-dim < 0-dim ("<" is exactly the uncovered 1-dim domain), even if there is a non-finite amount of 0-dim elements on the 1-dim element.

A counter-question a proof not makes! But, we will get to it in a minute.

Again:

• is 0-dim element.

_____ is 1-dim element.

It is shown that for any arbitrary • on _____ there is • < • < • , where < is possible for any amount of • on _____ exactly because no collection of • elements can fully cover _____

Is not an answer. It is a totally different question. We will get to it in a minute.


Here is how your argument fails realpaladin:

1) An 0-dim element is not covered by 0-dim element, because in this case we are left with our already existing 0-dim in that position.

If you read the question I said a 0-dim element. Not the. So by just pointing any arbitrary 0-dim you have shown that there exists at least one at those coordinates.

2) You cannot conclude anything about another 0-dim by using (1),

We were not talking about another. But just plain any.

so you are actually stacked in a one and only one position, that is covered by exactly one and only one 0-dim element.

Exactly. So where is the point that is NOT covered?


3) Since this is the case, you need a wider view in order to answer to your question, but when you are doing it, you are no longer in your 0-dim position, and anything that is not your 0-dim position is not covered by your 0-dim position.

This is just plain B.S. and forced reasoning. It shows you realised you were thoroughly wrong and just made coprolite up.

To state it otherwise, in the B.S. trademarked language of Dorn:

Which 0-dim position does not exist when you view it from it's 0-dim position?

Here it is:

___.__

If you spent any time thinking that up, chalk it up to 'wasted'.

As you see, the inability of 0-dim elements to be a 1-dim element is a structural atomic fact, which has nothing to do with any amount of 0-dim elements on a 1-dim element.

Using words that sound sciency, like 'it is shown' and 'as you can see' do not mean a lot.
They might when talking to bored people that regard the Donald Duck as a high-light of literature, but not here.

You have just admitted that there is another thing that OM can not do.

O.M. Becomes a more grandiose failure as we go along, doesn't it.

In answer to your counter-"question": Your 'science' is just humbug if you need to add so many constraints to make a simple question functioning.

Construed examples are needed that in themselves contain paradoxes that can only be solved by ignoring that they are a paradox.

So far, O.M. fails to answer any basic question at all. And that for something that wants to unite Math? Forget it.

Now, I have shown your reasoning utterly defunct, want to try again?

In real Math?
 
Here is another direct perception notion:

Let us look at:

http://www.geocities.com/complementarytheory/3KOCH.jpg

If this fractal is completely covered by 0-dim elements (in that case n=∞) then there cannot be a room for a "magenta" 0-dim element between any given "black" 0-dim elements.

In this case there is no fractal at all and we get exactly one only one 0-dim element.

Complete and utter wrong reasoning.

Again, you never address the type 2 infinity answer, which just as well applies here.

You can not show any point that is NOT covered on that fractal by a 0-dim element.
 
Here where you fail, there is no hierarchy in my Ford Circle argument.

What is written in page 3 of http://www.geocities.com/complementarytheory/OMDP.pdf shows exactly that we do not need any hierarchy of any kind in order to rigorously independently and directly define the R members.


The rest of you post is the same flop.

It does not show it. It states it. And tacks flawed reasoning on. Repeat it here if you will.
 
Each time you use misleading propaganda about me (and in this case you claim that I change my arguments a lot, similarly to Moshe's working style), you will get the hard facts right back to your face.
Hard facts? 12 links in a single post, and nothing of interest said - is this a record?

What you forget, is that many of us have actually read those messages already, in their original context, so we know who really spouts the misleading propaganda, evasions and double-talk.
 
As you see, the inability of 0-dim elements to be a 1-dim element is a structural atomic fact, which has nothing to do with any amount of 0-dim elements on a 1-dim element.
Quite, so why not answer the original question?
 
Just reading Apathia's conversation with Doron, I remember a lot of discussion at the Maharishi Mahesh Yogi University in Iowa, U.S. I was sent there by my work...

Yes, I am a Transcendental Meditation Initiate (I know, I do a lot with my life, except maybe waste it, and you know, when you live in the Netherlands as a student and you need to get a house, you sometimes accept the cost and... ah, forget it... :) ) and I own a copy of 'Ayurvedic Mathematics'.

Now, if I remember the sutra's correctly, both from discussion and the book (I will look it up if necessary in a week or so when I am back in NL), they explicitly state the need for transmutability between the elements.

One of the sayings of the 'Science of everything': "No thing will ever be not everything else".

So, personally, I do not think the TM route is the route to go. But what do I know.
 
What is written in page 3 of http://www.geocities.com/complementarytheory/OMDP.pdf shows exactly that we do not need any hierarchy of any kind in order to rigorously independently and directly define the R members.

I've just realised what we're dealing with. It's cargo cult maths, isn't it? You use the terms and think that's good enough, without actually understanding what they mean. "Rigorously", my arse.
 
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