Can theists be rational?

No substitute needed, that is a straw-man.

It's an apt analogy unless you can show why the substitution shouldn't be considered. Most people would consider the argument ridiculous if you substituted "teapot" for "life." To claim that your argument only pertains to aliens but not teapots orbiting Jupiter or any number of other things requires a valid reason that your argument should only pertain to aliens and not those other things.

Yes, if it answers nothing then why bring it up, unless you are showing that theists can't be rational.

You asked a question, and I asked for clarification. What do you think it has to answer to be valid? What do aliens answer?

-Bri
 
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It's an apt analogy unless you can show why the substitution shouldn't be considered. Most people would consider the argument ridiculous if you substituted "teapot" for "life." To claim that your argument only pertains to aliens but not teapots orbiting Jupiter or any number of other things requires a valid reason that your argument should only pertain to aliens and not those other things.

You asked a question, and I asked for clarification. What do you think it has to answer to be valid? What do aliens answer?

-Bri
A teapot is not life, it does not come about by natural forces and without life making it. The teapot is used as a substitue for a so-called god because both do not come about from natural forces, that is a very very big difference.

Aliens, oh please, it would show that we are not the only ones, and aliens too would come about by natural forces, no so-called god needed.

Paul

:) :) :)
 
Blobru's definition, which I agree with for the most part, isn't very succinct and is also subjective. Essentially it boils down to "it's rational unless the reasons to believe it are irrational." Blobru also concluded the opposite that you concluded about whether it is necessarily irrational to believe in a god.

Did she/he? It says at the end "can a theist be rational? Yes."

????

Can you clarify what you mean by "systematic observation or hypothesis testing" other than "supported by evidence?"

If you wish for the word 'evidence' to refer to 'systematic observation or hypothesis testing', that's okay with me as long as we're consistent.

I chose the example specifically because it was easy to understand. The point is that whether or not the conclusion is valid isn't exactly cut-and-dry unless the premises are supported by conclusive evidence. In the case of "I think he was 3 miles away" it's not clear. Still, I wouldn't say that it would necessarily be irrational to be of the opinion that Joe was probably speeding, even without conclusive evidence.

Right. But the point is that the example refers to things that we can easily know about, not a bunch of stuff that has been made up.

I'm telling you nicely that I don't understand the difference you're drawing at all. They both involve equations in which some of the premise is not supported by conclusive evidence. That one of the equations is a little "simpler to understand" doesn't seem to be a valid reason for labeling only one as "irrational." Specifically, blobru's definition -- if that's the one you're going with -- has nothing whatsoever to do with the simplicity of the equation upon which an argument is based on.

-Bri

Your example refers to things that we know about the real world. The fine-tuning argument is about a bunch of stuff that is made up or for which we have no reference point.

Linda
 
Websters.
Dictionaries provide usage. I'll concede that enough people misuse the word to qualify for a listing in the dictionary. In science a hypothetical isn't necessarily theoretical. The two can be very different.

Hypothetical:
If the moon were made of green cheese it would be edible.

Valid? Yes.
True? No.

My question to you, is it theoretically possible for humans to get calories and other nourishment from eating the moon?

The laws of physics are based on our observation of the natural universe. The notion of a supernatural being does not violate the laws of physics, which pertain to natural beings and not necessarily to supernatural beings.
Then everything is theoretical and the term has no meaning.

No, I really don't, and I'm not just being contrary. I don't understand the distinction you're trying to make.
In science something has to be demonstrable or at least theoretical. Using your definition everything is theoretical. The word has to actually mean something. You just use a get our of jail free card.

We don't know whether the existence of aliens fits within known theory since known theory doesn't tell us the events and circumstances by which intelligent life emerged here...
Utter nonsense and you are just being contrary. Look in the mirror. That qualifies scientifically as proof that intelligent life is both demonstrable and theoretical. You are looking for controversy where there is none.

No need to toss the known laws of physics. Clearly the laws of physics pertain to the natural universe, not necessarily to the supernatural.
"Superman" whereby everything is possible and science has no meaning.

I'm still unclear as to what you mean by "theoretical basis" here.
I think you are playing games but I'll give you the benefit of the doubt for the moment.

In theory, is it possible to get nourishment from eating moon rocks?
 
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Neither are inconsistent with the known laws of physics.
Oh, then please to provide the theory of how a supernatural entity is consistent with the known laws of physics?

Or are you using your magic get out of jail card.

You: I can fly by flapping my arms.
Me: That defies the laws of physics.
You: I operate outside of the laws of physics.

Me: Under what theory?
You: Supernatural power.

Me: You are just asserting something without any basis. We don't even know if "supernatural" is even possible.
You: Tough.

Me: Can this supernatual power be demonstrated?
You: No.

Me: Then your claim has no meaning. Your claim has no theoretical basis to supose anything about it.
 
A teapot is not life, it does not come about by natural forces and without life making it. The teapot is used as a substitue for a so-called god because both do not come about from natural forces, that is a very very big difference.

Teapots don't come about from natural forces? That's news to me. I didn't realize that teapots were supernatural.

-Bri
 
Then everything is theoretical and the term has no meaning.

I just asked you to define your terms. If you meant based on known theory, that's fine.

In science something has to be demonstrable or at least theoretical. Using your definition everything is theoretical. The word has to actually mean something. You just use a get our of jail free card.

No, I would agree that there is plenty of evidence that the moon isn't made of green cheese. However, there is no evidence that a supernatural being is impossible, and therefore I would say that it is theoretically possible for a supernatural being to exist.

Utter nonsense and you are just being contrary. Look in the mirror. That qualifies scientifically as proof that intelligent life is both demonstrable and theoretical. You are looking for controversy where there is none.

Again, if we were talking about intelligent life here on earth, I would agree. But I know of no compelling evidence that intelligent life exists elsewhere.

In theory, is it possible to get nourishment from eating moon rocks?

Possible, I suppose. Probable, no. There is plenty of evidence that moon rocks contain little or no nourishment. There is no evidence that a supernatural being is impossible.

-Bri
 
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Oh, then please to provide the theory of how a supernatural entity is consistent with the known laws of physics?

The known laws of physics apply to the natural universe as far as I know. They don't apply to the supernatural, if it exists. Can you state a physical law that would apply to the supernatural?

Then your claim has no meaning. Your claim has no theoretical basis to supose anything about it.

The only thing I suppose about it is that it's theoretically possible. There is no known theory that prevents it from being true. All scientific theory of which I'm aware has to do with the natural universe.

-Bri
 
Did she/he? It says at the end "can a theist be rational? Yes."

Maybe I misunderstood, but you seemed to be saying that a theism is necessarily irrational. That would not be the same as "yes, a theist can be rational."

If you wish for the word 'evidence' to refer to 'systematic observation or hypothesis testing', that's okay with me as long as we're consistent.

Like I said, I don't know what you mean by 'systematic observation or hypothesis testing' so if you mean "evidence" then fine, but if you mean something else, please clarify.

Right. But the point is that the example refers to things that we can easily know about, not a bunch of stuff that has been made up.

No, in the example we cannot easily know how long it took Joe to arrive since the eye-witness isn't certain. However, other variables such as the speed limit along the path is something that we can check out. That's the point. There is no conclusive evidence of whether or not Joe was speeding.

Your example refers to things that we know about the real world. The fine-tuning argument is about a bunch of stuff that is made up or for which we have no reference point.

The example concerning Joe speeding involves variables for which there is little evidence (precisely how long it took Joe to make the drive) and variables that are known (the speed limit).

The fine-tuning argument has variables we can know about (there is evidence for fine-tuning) and variables for which there is little or no evidence (the probability of fine-tuning if a god exists).

The same goes for any argument based on Drake's equation. We know something about the number of stars, but there is little or no evidence to support any value for many of the other variables.

-Bri
 
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However, there is no evidence that a supernatural being is impossible, and therefore I would say that it is theoretically possible for a supernatural being to exist.
Nonsense. What theory? What is this theory? You can't say it's possible in theory and then not provide a theory?

But I know of no compelling evidence that intelligent life exists elsewhere.
That's not the point. There is a theoretical basis for it. I can give you a theory for ET inteligent life. You can't give me one for god.

Possible, I suppose. Probable, no. There is plenty of evidence that moon rocks contain little or no nourishment.
With my supernatural powers I can turn the moon into green cheese.

There is no evidence that a supernatural being is impossible.
There is no evidence that I'm not superntural or that I can't turn the moon into green cheese. Prove that I can't? Prove that I'm not supernatural?
 
Can you state a physical law that would apply to the supernatural?
I'm going to let you in on a little secret. The "supernatural" doesn't exist. It's complete nonsense. It's a game you are playing to avoid facing the facts. The problem is that your little game renders everything both rational and irrational at the same time. Using your logic there is no real meaning to the word "irrational". It's all relative. Irrational is whatever you want it to mean. If I believe that the moon is made of green cheese you can't prove that it isn't. Evidence? How does the evidence from a natural world trump my supernatural evidence? Heres a hint: It doesn't.

You can't have it both ways. That's not to say you won't try.
 
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Sorry it takes me days to respond, but I don't have much time for newsgroups at the moment.

JoeTheJuggler said:
THe problem with this is that I don't accept that P(B) = 1.
First, it is or else we wouldn't be here. (In fact we KNOW for certain that B is true.)
Aside from that, this argument depends on P(B) being 1 at the same time the argument asserts that it is something close to zero. Whether you accept that P(B)=1 doesn't matter--the argument requires it, so there is a contradiction.

Yes, the argument requires it in order to arrive at a contradiction. But the argument doesn't require it, only the contradiction. If you don't make that assumption, there is no contradiction. I don't feel there is a valid reason to make that assumption, hence it does not produce a contradiction for me.

We have no way of assessing directly how many other, if any, universes might exist just as we have no way of assessing directly if a creator for ours exists. Assuming multiple universes exist, there is no reason to assume the proportion of universes that can support the development of planet-based life is 100% and even less reason to assume that the proportion would be the same for naturally occuring universes as for created universes.

If you assume that the proportion of life-producing universes is as small as the physicists cited in this thread claim, then the assumption that the proportion of created universes that support life is higher for created universes is a reasonable one. If you assume the proportion of life producing universes is higher for created universes than for naturally occuring ones, then a Bayesian analysis will show what Bri has claimed it does.

As for how useful such an analysis is....it's about as useful as any other form of speculation on the origins of our universe.
 
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But I know of no compelling evidence that intelligent life exists elsewhere.
Many theories started out with no compelling evidence. Science doesn't work by first knowing the facts. When Einstein first conceived of relativity it was only theoretical (FTR: it wasn't supernatural).

BTW: Einstein first used a hypothetical. However the premises were true. Your "compelling evidence" for existence misses the point by a mile. We can posit the existence of ET intelligent life without positing unknown forces or supernatural laws (that have never been shown to even exist) to posit ET intelligent life. We can construct a theoretical foundation that won't violate the laws of physics. It might not be right but it's scientific.

God? Still nothing. After all of these pages and posts (including those in a previous thread) you've never offered a single premise based on what we know is true to support a theoretical argument for god.

Nothing.
 
Not sure what you mean.
Let me help you. Argument from ignoranceWP
is a logical fallacy in which it is claimed that a premise is true only because it has not been proven false or is false only because it has not been proven true.
And you're saying:
The odds of such a being existing cannot be known in the first place, so it remains a plausible hypothesis on which to explain the values of the constants.
In other words, your words are that because the odds can't be known, it's a viable hypothesis. In other words, we should entertain the theory because we can't prove that it's not true.
These are subjective probabilities. For me, God has always been a plausible hypothesis.
And we see why, in this post...
Huh? The hypothesis "Something create the universe" means the only thing being put on the table is some lifeform that evolved? "Something" can apply to anything capable of creating a universe and fine-tuning it, including God.
How come you exclude multiverses and oscillating universes?
You're confusing ontological with epistemological. God either does or doesn't exist.
You sling out the strangest accusations. I've discussed this before. I'm not confusing being with knowledge. You're confusing belief with knowledge. Funny you should mention epistemology... epistemology is the study of knowledge and how we come about to know things. As I've stated before, it's easy for us to fool ourselves, and the only sure way to prevent this from happening is to make sure your knowledge derives from being, rather than from fancy.

This is a doubt based approach, as opposed to your answers based approach.
The FT argument is a way to show that our belief in God is justified viz-a-viz God being a good explanation for the long odds against life existing.
Remember that part that's highlighted.
I'm not excluding anything. What are you trying to argue, that life in a universe with no stars is plausible?
No. I'm presenting you an alternate model, where 0 parameters vary, and the same universe comes into being.

Your fine-tuning argument requires more than a recognition of parameters of life being in small ranges. You rely on specific models, whereby life is improbable. What you're leaving out are alternate models, where life is certain, and others where it's more certain (and still others where it's less probable... and so on).

Ironically, you're attempting to justify not adding that into consideration, by accusing my demanding it be considered with all other hypothesis, as being an argument from ignorance. Only I'm trying to get you to take everything into account.
If your only way to defeat the FT argument is making up faith-based stories, you have no leg to stand on accusing a theist of irrationality.
This is a great example of an ad hominem, straw man, and tu quoque argument combined.
Right. If the FT argument comes down to either something created the universe or there is a vast multiverse, the theist is on more stable ground. It is perfectly reasonable to reject the many-universes hypothesis as there is zero evidence for it.
Ah, so it's this argument:
God explains|Multiverse theory explains
the improbability of life|the improbability of life
therefore|but
it is evidence of God|there is no evidence for it
I'm beginning to see how this not bias thing works.

You're then left with either chance or a universe-creator. The theist has to do a bit more arguing to go from "universe creator" to God, but once you establish the rationality of believing the universe was created by something powerful enough to create universes and fine-tune them, it's a short leap to go from there to some type of God.
Sure. All you're lacking is a brain.
Not bias. The impossibilty of a life-less universe is better explained by a life-symapthetic universe creator, than by chance. Imagine you're looking over a sea of trillions of actual universes. You are then told that every single one is full of life- not a lifeless one out of trillions and trillions. I certainly would be surprised. Now add to that you ALSO found out they all have life because the values of the physical constants are set in just the right life-permitting way- protons just happen to have the right mass, the fine-structure constant just happens to be set at the right value. That kind of evidence would make anything but a universe creator irrational to believe in.
Time for another unbiased table...
Improbability of life|Necessity of life
is evidence for|is evidence for
God|God
The physical constants are random and we have evidence for either an oscillating universe or a vast multiverse. God would not be required to explain anything if that is the way the universe is.
Only problem is, we are pretty sure that there's no oscillating universe, and you're stealing all of the evidence for multiverses for use with that God hypothesis.

According to the physicists I've sourced, the odds are infinistesimally small. I don't know why you won't post rebuttal sources. This is a cosmological argument. You're going to have reference something other than your musings.
...
I'm supposing their opinon on a highly technical matter counts for more than what you are I could say. They are actually paid to write and think about this stuff. When the doctor shows you an X-ray, do you physically take apart the X-Ray machine to verify it gave the correct result?
...
Again, feel free to source other cosmologists/physicists who disagree about the precise values needed for life and we'll go from there. Till then, I have my quotes from experts and you haven't shown anything to refute them.

Why would I have their "model"? I assume it would be meaningless to someone without an advanced degree in physics or math. Do you really think Hawking is full of [ooooh the children!!!] Again, who's the radical skepticist around here anyway?
Uhm, no, I think you have no clue what you're talking about. Hoyle (who I see you brought up again... must have a short term memory) aside, who was sort of wacky when he delved outside his field (and you're welcome to plug in that biochemist any time)... Penrose was the only one you mentioned that actually gave you a probability.

I have asked you, over and over, to tell me their model, and I see you finally have a response. Who cares about his model? He's a big smart physicist, and how dare I question him! But you don't quite seem to get it. You care, and I care, what his model is. Only you really don't. As I said, you're after his precious number.

Well, I got tired of playing this charade, so I did something. I chased down the Penrose reference for you. And I read it. I don't have an advanced physics or mathematics degree (though if you haven't noticed, I'm not exactly alergic to math), but... I... understood what he was doing. Would you like to hear about it?

Sure you would! Okay, so let's go.

The reference turned out to be Penrose's 1990 book, "The Emperor's New Mind". The citation referenced near the end of a chapter where Penrose was discussing... of all things... the arrow of time, and entropy. Penrose uses a phase model, which being a great software engineer, is pretty familiar to me (we call similar things "state machines"), to describe universes of the same order as ours. My analogy, not his, but imagine that you have a deck of cards--and shuffle them into all possible arrangements... this is the sort of thing that Penrose has done to his phase model. Each point in his phase model represents a possible arrangement of all of the particles in the universe (but only that <5% that we recently discovered, and Penrose is merely estimating to make another point).

Those are your possible universes--every possible arrangement of matter within our universe.

Now, then, out of that set, Penrose was describing how physics is actually time symmetric--that the laws work the same forward as it does backward. And he took, in my opinion, an extremely long time, to explain that you can move from one point to the other, in a similar fashion that represents the evolution of particles through time int he universe according to physical laws... but because the laws are symmetric, you can move either way. But in the vast majority of these phase space points, moving both ways wind up increasing the total entropy.

But in our universe, entropy only increases, and the big bang itself was a state of extraordinarily low entropy. The odds that Penrose is producing... 1 in 10 to the 10123, represents the proportion of all arrangements of particles in the universe from which an entropy state as low as the big bang appears.

And that is what he is talking about. Near the end of the chapter, he writes:

Penrose:
We seem to have been forced into an impasse. We need to understand why space-time singularities have the structures that they appear to have; but space-time singularities are regions where our understanding of physics has reached its limits.
...
What have we learnt from all this? We have learnt that our theories are not yet adequate to provide answers, ...

Okay... so, what were your options?
1. non-plantary life is possible
2. we got lucky
3. something set the contants at a certain value
...and mine?
4. Penrose wasn't working with a known, scientific model of universe formation, that accounts for why parameters get the values they get (you know, the one we need to get relevant probabilities).
...and which one did Penrose pick, 19 years ago?
"We have learnt that our theories are not yet adequate to provide answers, ..."

I don't know what Hawking thinks of the FT argument. Feel free to look it up. I referenced these guys to support my formulation of the evidence, which was being attacked by several people.
You can read his opinion if you're interested.
An appeal to ignorance to get around a theistic argument supported by physics and biology.
Sorry. You're not going to get out of having to prove your case by making false accusations.

See Penrose, above. Cite someone who knows how the universe gets its parameters. And it would help if you yourself tried to understand your sources, or at least you didn't just outright start with the assumption that it's above my head (I'll be happy to tell you if I don't understand something myself, thank you).
 
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As for how useful such an analysis is....it's about as useful as any other form of speculation on the origins of our universe.

I find probabilistic analyses of the existence of God, from either side, follow this recipe:

  1. Devise a set of rules to determine the probability of God.
  2. Assign probabilities for the various parameters.
  3. Examine the conclusion.
  4. Repeat 1-3 until the desired conclusion is reached.
 
Maybe I misunderstood, but you seemed to be saying that a theism is necessarily irrational. That would not be the same as "yes, a theist can be rational."

Perhaps a re-reading of the OP would be in order, then. :)

Like I said, I don't know what you mean by 'systematic observation or hypothesis testing' so if you mean "evidence" then fine, but if you mean something else, please clarify.

I mean the normal activities of scientific inquiry. I use 'evidence' to refer to a subset of the results of that activity, but 'reason' or 'rationality' uses all the results.

No, in the example we cannot easily know how long it took Joe to arrive since the eye-witness isn't certain. However, other variables such as the speed limit along the path is something that we can check out. That's the point. There is no conclusive evidence of whether or not Joe was speeding.

The example concerning Joe speeding involves variables for which there is little evidence (precisely how long it took Joe to make the drive) and variables that are known (the speed limit).

The fine-tuning argument has variables we can know about (there is evidence for fine-tuning) and variables for which there is little or no evidence (the probability of fine-tuning if a god exists).

The same goes for any argument based on Drake's equation. We know something about the number of stars, but there is little or no evidence to support any value for many of the other variables.

-Bri

When I talk about lack of evidence or lack of a reference point, I am not talking about simple ignorance of the exact value of a data point. That is why your Joe example, which represents simple ignorance of the exact value of a data point, has nothing to do with the way in which we don't know anything about the existence of God or whether the universe is something we would call 'fine-tuned'. We don't know anything about God because our concept of God wasn't built upon a careful consideration of evidence in the way that Gravity or Electromagnetism was. We don't know whether the universe is something we would call 'fine-tuned' because we don't know the conditions under which universe creation occurs.

Linda
 
Nonsense. What theory? What is this theory? You can't say it's possible in theory and then not provide a theory?

It fits within any known theory.

That's not the point. There is a theoretical basis for it. I can give you a theory for ET inteligent life. You can't give me one for god.

Sure I can. The theory is that there is a god is outside of the natural universe that has the power to adjust the constants of the natural universe so that it can support life.

You're the one claiming that a god is theoretically impossible, so please provide a theory that a god is impossible.

With my supernatural powers I can turn the moon into green cheese.

The evidence would be against it, given that you probably exist within the natural universe.

There is no evidence that I'm not superntural or that I can't turn the moon into green cheese. Prove that I can't? Prove that I'm not supernatural?

It's not impossible that you're supernatural, and so it's not impossible that you can do so. I certainly cannot prove that you're not supernatural.

-Bri
 
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I'm going to let you in on a little secret. The "supernatural" doesn't exist.

I'm going to let you in on a little secret. I've never said that the "supernatural" exists. In fact, I've said that there is little or no evidence of it. You're the one making the claim that it's theoretically impossible. It's not.

The problem is that your little game renders everything both rational and irrational at the same time.

Wrong. There are many irrational beliefs, particularly those that are incoherent or inconsistent with reality. In other words, those that have fairly conclusive evidence against them.

But those things for which there is no conclusive evidence are simply unknown. That doesn't make them necessarily rational or irrational. I'm not certain why you feel the need to label certain things for which there is no conclusive evidence "irrational" and others "rational," but you have to resort to special pleading to do so.

Using your logic there is no real meaning to the word "irrational". It's all relative. Irrational is whatever you want it to mean. If I believe that the moon is made of green cheese you can't prove that it isn't. Evidence? How does the evidence from a natural world trump my supernatural evidence?

Not being able to prove something impossible is not the same thing as not having evidence against it. There is evidence against the moon being made of green cheese. Sure, I can't prove that it's impossible that the moon is made of green cheese, but I don't have to. There's plenty of evidence that it's not made of green cheese.

You can't have it both ways. That's not to say you won't try.

I haven't, but nice little straw man you've built there.

-Bri
 

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