Correct, I did say that it doesn't set up a false dichotomy. A dichotomy, yes, but not a false one. There are only two possibilities for the hypothesis (the existence of a god) -- H (got exists) or ~H (god does not exist).
English is so ambiguous at times. Math? Very, very precise.
Once you get to Bayes Theorem, you're speaking math. Where the numbers come from is everything. The prose you surround it with is nothing but lies (Edit: Clarification--this is a poetic expression, not an accusation). If P(E|H) means that the universe was fine tuned by a fine tuner, H must represent the existence of a fine tuner in some incarnation. You're perfectly willing to call all fine tuners god. H' then
immediately gets an interpretation--no fine tuner.
Now, when you talk about P(E|H') meaning
that the universe, not being fine tuned, arose according to a model, you're committing a false dichotomy. Any specific alternate hypothesis you tie deserves a label not necessarily distinct from H'--I'm giving it J. P(E|H') is bound to a value
specifically due to a hypothesis about how the universe comes about without a god. In particular, it has the universe vary on dimensionless parameters under certain distributions. Again,
not necessarily distinct from H', but this is what the argument actually consists of, in the non-ambiguous precise language of mathematics, as a direct consequence of assignment of the probability in this fashion.
The question then is whether or not J is H'. J is H' if and only if the model, J, is the only possible (or at least, the only viable) model that is an alternative to H.
Yes, definitely, H' means the complement of H. But the argument assigns the entirety of H' to this J.
Correct. Either a god exists or a god doesn't exist. There is no other possibility.
There is, but we can ignore it for now.
~H is simply the complement of the hypothesis -- ~H is "there is no god."
Fine. Then "there is no god" is equated to "the universe follows this model". Doesn't matter one iota to me. "there is no god" reads H', and "the universe follows this model" reads J. I can do math in prose if you absolutely insist on it--just allow me to slap the duck labels onto the ducks while I do so.
No, ~H would include any universe with no god, not just one specific kind of one.
Not by the argument. The argument derives a P(E|H') based on equating H' with J.
If they don't include a god, then they're fairly described by ~H.
Not as long as they equate it to a specific model, J, such that J is not H'. And whether or not they forgot to label that duck J, I don't care.
I've been pretty clear about the reasons for the comparison with the Drake equation. If you're not of the opinion that a belief in a god must be irrational, then indeed the comparison isn't really intended for you.
That's fine. But (a) you brought it up, and (b) since you brought it up, with respect to this specific comparison, your Drake equation analogy is lacking an analogous logical fallacy.
I'm even willing to discuss whether any belief for which there is little compelling evidence could be considered irrational.
And until I claim otherwise, I range from considering some theists rational to considering the entire human race irrational. But I am claiming a specific set of humans-in-practice to be irrational, and such humans-in-practice, in practice, contain a disproportionately large representation of theists. Again, just a tiny bit of the apple.