"I think I know what you mean now. I shall make that comparison with a simple calculation.
The intensity of an electromagnetic point source decreases as 1/r2 where r is the distance from the source. Lets assume that the intensity of the ball of light is proportional to its volume."
Why on earth would you assume that?
I was wrong. The intensity will actually decrease with a higher volume because the intensity of a spherical source is proportional to its radius for constant power. My calculation was wrong because I assumed they were point sources. See below for the calculation when the source is not a point source. However, my conclusion is still valid if both the balls have the same power.
What you'd need to do first is prove that these balls of light exist. Nobody's ever seen one, measured one or studied one
There is actually a very good candidate for the ball of light which have been studied by scientist at least since the beginning of the 19th century, the ball lightning phenomena. There are many scientist working on it, and have proposed numerous theories to explain it. There have also been many attempts to reproduce it in the laboratory. This is still a very active area of research, and no one understands exactly what it is.
I think the fact that we know what causes crop circles (humans) against Levendick's hypothesis is the biggest clue. Even the merest whiff of Occam's Razor says that Leven is past his use-by date.
Levengood's hypothesis is not important. The real interesting thing is in his data. The fact that his data contradicts the man-made hypothesis can be used to state that his data is wrong. However, this will require that the man-made hypothesis is the only way that crop circles could happen. There is evidence that humans can make crop circles, but where is the evidence that absolutely all crop circles have to be man-made?
Occam's razor state that if in doubt, the simplest explanation holds true. When there is evidence that suggests the contrary, the simplest explanation must either be modified, or ignored to account for the new evidence.
What is the basis for your assumption that the contradicting evidence is false?
This is also why his calculation in his last post is laughable. Sure, the sun is extremely far away (relatively speaking), but is so unbelievably large that the amount of radiation reaching the earth's surface is enormous. We are just so used to dealing with it, we never think about the numbers involved. As an analogy, most people are amazed when they learn just how much air weighs.
Since GS doesn't seem interested in anything other than supporting the fantasies in those papers, I don't feel a need to crunch the numbers just to watch them being waved away. If you are interested, I may see what I can google up.
I hope you agree with the inverse-square law for electromagnetic radiation. The Intensity of the Sun's radiation is about 63 million W/m
2. After applying the inverse square law, its intensity at the upper atmosphere of the Earth is about 1367 W/m
2. This intensity will be reduced to about 40% when it reaches the Earth's surface (Source:
http://www.eoearth.org/article/Solar_radiation). So, at the Earth's surface, the intensity from the Sun's radiation will be about 546.8 W/m
2
This is the proper calculation for the decrease in intensity if the source has a radius and not just a point source. The intensity of the source of radiation is given by:
I
s = Ir
2/r
s2
where I is the Intensity at a distance r from the source, and r
s is the radius of the source. This equation is derived from the inverse-square law.
For a 2 m
3 ball of light with a distance of 7.8 m from the ground, the intensity of the ball of light must at least be 54680 W/m
2 to match the intensity of the sun's radiation on the ground. That is about 1152 times less intense than the Sun. If the ball of light is any more intense than that, its intensity on the ground will be higher than the sun's.