Jaggy Bunnet
Philosopher
- Joined
- May 16, 2003
- Messages
- 6,241
No, it's simply common sense. If you prefer an absolute measure of poverty you should feel free to establish a baseline of for example conditions in hunter gatherer societies 200.000 years ago and declare everyone to be stinking rich, but it would be a rather pointless declaration. You could of cause also set the baseline as something that makes sense in a modern context, but then you'd really still be setting a relative standard. Unless of cause you can give some reasonable explanation for why exactly the conditions of the west in 2007 should be considered the universal baseline for poverty. I’m looking forward to you explanation for that.
Except that what you end up with is resources being targetted at moving people from 59% of median earnings to 61% because that is "reducing poverty" and you can achieve a much bigger reduction in poverty rates by doing that than by devoting the same resources to helping those who are scraping an existence much lower down the earnings scale.
And of course such a calculation assumes that people stop being poor if all the rich people emigrate - even if they are in exactly the same financial position.