We're not talking about a right. We're talking about access to a privilage.
No. I was talking about access to a privilege. You were talking about violating property rights without due process. Different things entirely.
Okay, fine. Let's modify the hypothetical so it is more appropriate: Let's say the city does not allow my wife and I to receive city water in the first place because of how we dance. No contract was made, so none was broken.
Is that a better analogy?
It's better, but it's incomplete. As it stands now, there are usually specific laws which prevent that sort of thing for utility companies, since they operate as regulated monopolies. But more generally speaking, this gets to the question of interest: namely, does the state have an interest which is connected to the way you dance? If the state had no interest which is affected, then clearly they cannot. If they do have an interest which is affected, then conceivably, but I cannot imagine any such interest.
Again, I ask: how is that not discrimination against the individuals?
Wrong question. The issue isn't whether something is discrimination (because, frankly, discrimination IS legal: that's why blind people can't drive cars). The issue is equal protection.
Let's say the state did not allow a mixed race couple to get married because of what the couple is. Are you saying that is not discrimination because each person is fully capable of marrying someone of their own race?
No, that IS discrimination, but more importantly, that's a violation of equal protection, because the state has no interest in the race of anyone involved, including (in analogy to same sex couples) the race of any children produced. Discrimination on the basis of a factor which the state has no interest in is a violation of equal protection, and therefore is unconstitutional.
Then what, would you say, prevents two men from walking into the local court house and obtaining a marriage license?
Their sex, not their sexuality. It is irrelevant to the state whether those two men are homosexual or heterosexual.
It may have been a nonsensical question, but you didn't answer it. I'll ask again:
If it is a matter of privacy that prevents the government from investigating heterosexuals' ability to have children, why is ability to conceive not a matter of privacy for homosexuals?
Again: sexuality is NOT the issue, and is irrelevant to the state.
Same-sex couples do not have the ability to procreate on their own. There's no privacy involved to be able to figure that one out, so I am baffled that you keep asking it.
There is a SECONDARY question you have brought up, namely why does the state not distinguish between those same-sex couples which can procreate on their own, and those that cannot. There is no single dividing line on that question, though, but a whole bunch of possible dividing lines. And there are a number of reasons why the state might not draw those dividing lines. For some of them, it is difficult and costly to do (tests for fertility). For some, it is an invasion of privacy (women who have had hysterectomies). For some (elderly), it may simply be a matter of the state not bothering to make a distinction it can or should make. The state is not obligated to perform ideally, and it is not a violation of any constitutional principle for the state to extend a privilege farther than it should in any particular direction.
And lastly, of course, there's the possibility that an ADDITIONAL interest is served by allowing such marriages. And that's where I KEEP telling you that you have an opportunity to argue for same-sex marriages, and yet the argument is never made. It really isn't that hard to do, you know.
Now, pay very close attention to this before answering: The point that you missed is that even if it were plainly obvious that a heterosexual couple could not have children, they would still be allowed to get married because it is none of the state's business whether or not they have the ability to have children.
But that simply isn't the only possible answer for why the state allows such marriages, as I detail above.
Now, please answer: Why are homosexuals not allowed the same level of privacy as heterosexuals?
How many times do I have to spell this out for you: there is NEVER a test of sexuality involved at ANY point in this. Jeeze, it's like a broken record at this point.
Given two couples with the exact same capabilities and talents, you would let one get married if they were a heterosexual couple and not let the other if they were homosexual. The only difference is the couple's sexual orientation.
I don't think you realize what you wrote. Let me give you two example couples which fit your criteria:
Couple 1) a heterosexual man and a heterosexual woman.
Couple 2) a homosexual man and a homosexual woman.
Those two couples have the exact same capabilities and talents. The state does not distinguish between them, and will let either couple marry. Sexuality is irrelevant to the state.
Now, here are a few more possible couples:
Couple 3) A heterosexual man and another heterosexual man
Couple 4) A homosexual man and another homosexual man
Couples 3 and 4 both have the same capabilities and talents. The state does not distinguish between them, and will not let either couple marry. Sexuality is irrelevant to the state.
THOSE are pairings of couples which actually fit your OWN criteria that "The only difference is the couple's sexual orientation." And you can see that there is no distinction drawn between them. Sexuality is never used as a criteria, only sex is.