Upchurch
Papa Funkosophy
I'm not arguing that the state doesn't have an interest in procreation. I'm not aruing that marriage doesn't provide a strong mechanism for the broad definition of procreation. What I'm asking for is some sort of evidence that marriage is what it is because of procreation and, more importantly, that procreation is one of the more/most significant reasons that the government regulates marriage.In this case, it IS obvious, or at least should be. The state has an interest in promoting and supporting procreation, for the simple reason that bad things happen to states which experience demographic declines, and states have an interest in promoting the welfare of their citizens. I'm not sure how much more basic I have to get than that, and I don't know what piece of that statement you think needs evidence to support it.
After all, corelation does not mean causation.
The interest, if merely coincidental, is then irrelevent to the gender of the persons getting married.If you do not, then the state interest is axiomatic: it does not matter for the argument whether that's why any particular group of people chose to enact whatever marriage laws exist, the interest is still there.
First, I have no intention of following your script. I can make my own arguments, thank you.Sure. And I even pointed out (repeatedly) that there's an opportunity in this to make a counter-argument, but you're still not actually making it, you're just hinting at it.
If you agree that SSM couples can participate in procreation and you insist that marriage is government promotion of procreation, which it has an interest in promoting, for what reason should the government not be in favor of SSM?
You are either being intentionally obtuse or ...well, you must be intentionally obtuse, because you are simply not that stupid. I am refering to to the requirement for the sex (or gender, if you prefer) of the members of the marriage.No, there are sex requirements to the law. There are NO sexuality requirements to the law. That may be a technicality, but the law often hinges upon technicalities.
To restate: This is where we disagree and, really, the heart of the debate. If sexuality were truly irrelevant to marriage law, there would be no sexual requirements to the law. There are sexual requirements, so sexuality is relevant.
I'd love to hear this argued in front of a judge.And such an interest DOES exist, regardless of whether or not that interest is why the laws in question were established.
Wow. I mean, wow.I did address that. I pointed out that there's no discrimination between citizens involved, because sexuality is never used as a test. The only claim on discrimination here is to couples, not individuals, but the government is not under any obligation to treat every group of citizens equal protection, only every individual citizen equal protection.
So, what you're telling me is that the state can come in and turn off the water to my house because they don't like the way we dance (or something equally inane) and it's okay because their discriminating against both my wife and I and not just each of us individually? That can't be what you are trying to say.
Religious institutions and the press, for example, might disagree.The ONLY units which have ANY constitutional rights are individuals and states - no other units of citizens have any constitutional recognition.