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The relationship between science and materialism

I wish I had a fishing rod with all the red herrings now swimming.

The Question is not "Do we learn to see color?" Or "How/where does pain exist" or any of the other myriad sideroads that can be scientificlly analyzed observing what "we" perceive as behaviors and actual brain activities at every level immaginable.

The Question is " What is that we mentioned ... body-stuff, or mind-stuff?
 
How else can it be defined and communicated? (That's a very serious and genuine question.)

It don't think it can be defined in any way. I think your definition entails something else completely ie, various physical behaviours. The best I can do for you or vice versa is to point the other in the right direction, for example by saying "look, here, this is redness" or "I see redness when I look there". I appreciate that was how you are trying to define redness, but I do not think that is a definition of redness at all. Redness is not touched upon but at least it goes some way to increasing our confidence that we are both refering to a similar quality. Even thats not a given, as I'm sure you will agree. But the qualitative nature of any experience is impervious to doubt, regardless of who is experiencing it. Whether you and I experience exactly the same thing does not matter to that aspect of reality as far as I can tell.

The only other way of doing it that I can think of is by some form of "scan" of the brain and seeing if the same area of the brain responds in the same manner under both stimulus; that I suppose would remove the need to have to ask someone but still at some point someone has had to say "I'm experiencing red" to make that initial link.

Just thought I suppose it is possible that we could develop our knowledge to such an extent that we can predict from a first principles bases what we should see in a brain when someone is experiencing red.


All this is still essentially the same line of argument because we are defining a sequence of physical processes, just with differing complexity. I would therefore have to respond by saying that this is still an attempt to define something relationally that cannot be defined in such a way.
 
I wish I had a fishing rod with all the red herrings now swimming.

The Question is not "Do we learn to see color?" Or "How/where does pain exist" or any of the other myriad sideroads that can be scientificlly analyzed observing what "we" perceive as behaviors and actual brain activities at every level immaginable.

The Question is " What is that we mentioned ... body-stuff, or mind-stuff?

I agree and well said. Any number of physical definitions can be chosen in an attempt to define redness. Some chose wavelength of light, others chose brain processes and so on. If I, Hammegk or anyone else keeps repeating a request for materialists to provide an answer to "what is this red you keep refering to" its because that question hasn't really been addressed at all in any physical definition.
 
Why is it impervious to doubt?

(Your original comments were to my comment about hammegk's expression of his faith - which was not about experience but about the "I that thinks it is thinking" we seem to be onto a quite different point now.)
Perhaps they are the same, and for each individual, unfortunately require faith imo.

Thought exists, 100%, impervious to doubt. I think, requires faith. Which, if you understood what you read, has been my position all along.


It is your logic that is erroneous.
Evidence?
 
I'm interested in the same. We have different ways of approaching it, but I think our interests coincide, at least. I'm not entirely sure that we are re-defining quality to be something that it is not. We couldn't really define it before, so I'm not sure what it is in that system.

If you're doubting its nature or "appearance" then you are looking at the wrong thing. Look at the aspects of existence that are impervious to doubt. Or do you think there are no such aspects?

I have a better "feel" for it as a feeling and I think we might be able to make head-way investigating what feelings are by examining nervous systems and how they function.

I don't think this is possible, if you are using the same meaning of the word "feeling" as I. All the headway you will achieve is into nervous system function.

We are at baby stages now, so I think it is premature to conclude that such investigations will be fruitless.

Argument from ignorance? Its not that I am unimpressed with how far neuroscience has got understanding cognition. I just think that it is inconceivable that physical descriptions can explain quality, however sophisticated the description is. I don't have to be an expert in systems or cognitive neuroscience to say that. I just have to recognise the fundamental characteristic of physical descriptions (which I believe is mathematical) and how that cannot penetrate the nature of quality.


I thought I was closer to the issue with the second part of that post. I was simply trying to get across the problems of discussing the cerebellum in the first part. In scenario "b" there is a different sort of experience. The cerebellum is not the cerebrum. But that does not mean that there is no feeling involved in cerebellar processing.

Different areas of the brain do different things, yes. In fact, that is one of the arguments against simplistic ways of viewing our mental lives -- that all of our mental life constitutes a "whole" with no "parts". If that were the case, it would be impossible for us to lop off various functions. But we can. As I think we all agree, if we change brain we change "mind". There is a clear relationship that is indisputable. The dispute concerns only the causal relation between the observed correlation. I don't pretend to know the precise causal relation. I am interested in how certain neural structures play into those observed correlations -- how the game is played, how the brain does it if it is the underlying cause. Whether or not that is only a correlation and not cuasation, so what? If we can do something to fix brain problems then we have something.

If its only a correlation then you are still left with the "hard problem of consciousness" and the nature of quality is still an open debate. So the question is, a correlation between what kinds of things? If its a correlation between the physical brain and qualitative experience then I can't see a conceivable way by which a supposed causal link can be established. For in order for the link to be established you would have to define each side of the causal chain in physical terms, which would mean re-defining quality as something it is not, ie, quantitative. I don't deny there is an interesting correlation. But when investigating this correlation from the perspective of philosophy, I believe you have to look at alternative views. Your view assumes that physical reality is independent of experience (how I define objective), but a clue may lie in the fact that the brain processes that you suppose cause experience are actually experienced too! I thinks its only when you assume that observed physical processes are objective that you create the problem here described.
 
I don't deny there is an interesting correlation. But when investigating this correlation from the perspective of philosophy, I believe you have to look at alternative views. Your view assumes that physical reality is independent of experience (how I define objective), but a clue may lie in the fact that the brain processes that you suppose cause experience are actually experienced too! I thinks its only when you assume that observed physical processes are objective that you create the problem here described.
Well, that's how many philosophers would like to look at it. This frees them from having to take into account the facts of the physical world at all - these don't have to be thought of as established facts, they are just what we currently think the physical world is and we might be wrong.

But this is a misunderstanding of science. Science doesn't describe a real, directly experiencable world (which is your whole objection to materialism, right?). It is an abstraction, a mathematisation. The physical world is information, it is what we empirically know about our experience. And the knowledge holds true, regardless of how we change our metaphysical stories about the "real" entities behind the equations and diagrams of science. The physical world's lack of subjective quality is what makes it immune from philosophical doubt as to its contents, while leaving it open to the charge that it says nothing directly about our subjective experience.

We have to take the facts of neuroscience seriously and they impose constraints that do pretty serious damage to naive philosophical notions of consciousness. But this may also be the beginning of a solution - if subjective experience is not what we think it is when we reflect on it then maybe it is not so utterly irreconcilable with the physical world after all?
 
Originally Posted by hammegk :
Thought exists, 100%, impervious to doubt.

Well that's all very well hearing that assertion from a p-zombie but could a being with an actual consciousness verify that?
You can join up with Darat and argue for the alternative. Or, just keep posting; that'll convince some people.


Note also my 100% certainty is not that "I think"; that requires a leap of faith.
 
If you're doubting its nature or "appearance" then you are looking at the wrong thing. Look at the aspects of existence that are impervious to doubt. Or do you think there are no such aspects?

I can take the certain knowledge that thought exists as far as ...... the certain knowledge that thought exists. It doesn't help. I can't build on that. That is why Descartes had to invoke God. Every one of my thoughts may be completely wrong, so knowing that thought exists helps in no way, shape or form. At some point I must make a leap and choose a metaphysical position. I can choose idealism or I can choose some form of materialism. I have no idea what is out there and I don't particularly care (actually I do care, but I have no hope of ever knowing with certainty). But there certainly appears to be something out there. It follows rules. I want to understand those rules. I am part of what is out there. I follow the same rules. What I have seen is that overindulgence in our own way of thinking leads down a primrose path to circularity. I don't want to trod that path any longer. I don't pretend to answer for anyone else, though.



I don't think this is possible, if you are using the same meaning of the word "feeling" as I. All the headway you will achieve is into nervous system function.

That's fine with me. I think it will be helpful.



Argument from ignorance? Its not that I am unimpressed with how far neuroscience has got understanding cognition. I just think that it is inconceivable that physical descriptions can explain quality, however sophisticated the description is. I don't have to be an expert in systems or cognitive neuroscience to say that. I just have to recognise the fundamental characteristic of physical descriptions (which I believe is mathematical) and how that cannot penetrate the nature of quality.

I'm not making an argument so how can it be an argument from ignorance? I was pointing to a pathway and saying that I think it looks interesting and seems worth the effort.

RE: descriptions -- no one is saying that the description is going to tell us precisely what experiences are like. We are only looking at the rules of the game and trying to understand them, to understand how the experiences are possible given the natural constraints. The internal experiences will remain internal experiences. But that does not mean that they do not have natural causes.




If its only a correlation then you are still left with the "hard problem of consciousness" and the nature of quality is still an open debate.

Who ever said it wasn't open to debate? My big beef with Geoff was because he said it was impossible ever to account for consciousness by natural means.

So the question is, a correlation between what kinds of things? If its a correlation between the physical brain and qualitative experience then I can't see a conceivable way by which a supposed causal link can be established.

That's fine. I'm not asking you to see the causal link. I don't see precisely how it works either. But I think it's worth a look to see if we can figure it out. I think it is far too early to say that it is impossible.

For in order for the link to be established you would have to define each side of the causal chain in physical terms, which would mean re-defining quality as something it is not, ie, quantitative.

Well, I don't agree with your definition of qualitative as something that cannot even in theory be explained by natural means. If it is impossible to explain "quality" by any means other than "it's unexplainable" then I see no utility in even discussing it. We are fooled by many different things, especially our own modes of thinking. Perhaps we are fooled by the methods we have used to think about "quality".


I don't deny there is an interesting correlation. But when investigating this correlation from the perspective of philosophy, I believe you have to look at alternative views. Your view assumes that physical reality is independent of experience (how I define objective), but a clue may lie in the fact that the brain processes that you suppose cause experience are actually experienced too! I thinks its only when you assume that observed physical processes are objective that you create the problem here described.

Why is that a problem? Actions may be described by third person account or by first person experience. Brains doing what they do are simply actions. It's a very special type of action, but it is the quintessence of action, nearly constant action. That we expereience through this action is kind of interesting I think. That we can look at neurons firing simply means that we can describe the process from the outside. But that description will not be the experiences we are having. The best it can do is explain why we experience. I think that is worth investigating.
 
Note also my 100% certainty is not that "I think"; that requires a leap of faith.

So you're saying that it's 100% certain that thought exists yet you can't even single yourself out as something with thoughts?

I fail to see where you get this 100% certainty.
 
I have to side with hammegk on this one. The only thing we can be absolutely certain of is that experiences (thoughts) exist. Anything else requires an assumption of some kind.
 
I have to side with hammegk on this one. The only thing we can be absolutely certain of is that experiences (thoughts) exist. Anything else requires an assumption of some kind.

Have to disagree - I don't think we can be certain of anything - every one of my thoughts may be completely wrong (including that I think I experience thoughts), I just don't know.
 
Well that's all very well hearing that assertion from a p-zombie but could a being with an actual consciousness verify that?

No, because the act of verification allows for some amount of doubt, ie, the possibility of being wrong. The qualitative nature of an experience is impervious to doubt therefore it cannot be "verified".
 
Well, that's how many philosophers would like to look at it. This frees them from having to take into account the facts of the physical world at all - these don't have to be thought of as established facts, they are just what we currently think the physical world is and we might be wrong.

I don't think it means that. The difficultly that science faces when trying to explain qualitative experience is how to bridge the concepts of the physical and qualitative experience itself. Usually that involves trying to re-define what qualitative experience means in terms of quantitative relationships. I don't think that will ever work. Alternatively, it may be possible to re-define physical reality as being experience-dependent rather than independent. This doesn't mean that facts about physical reality have to be questioned. The meaning of those facts may just change in light of an experience-dependent reality.
But this is a misunderstanding of science. Science doesn't describe a real, directly experiencable world (which is your whole objection to materialism, right?).

Thats not really my objection to materialsm. I may have misunderstood you, but my objection is that materialism holds that reality exists independent of experience and that it is this assumption that has created the unsolvable problem of how to account for experience in terms of physical processes.
It is an abstraction, a mathematisation. The physical world is information, it is what we empirically know about our experience. And the knowledge holds true, regardless of how we change our metaphysical stories about the "real" entities behind the equations and diagrams of science.

I agree but what are these "real" entities if not aspects of experience?

The physical world's lack of subjective quality is what makes it immune from philosophical doubt as to its contents, while leaving it open to the charge that it says nothing directly about our subjective experience.

How are the contents of the physical world immune to doubt when we must make measurements of it?
 
I can take the certain knowledge that thought exists as far as ...... the certain knowledge that thought exists. It doesn't help. I can't build on that.

But doesn't that make it clear that experience cannot be explained by physical relationships? And if that is so then we will be forced to re-define physical reality as being experience-dependent. That would have far reaching implications IMO. We may even be able to predict aspects of physical reality that were never possible under the old view.


Well, I don't agree with your definition of qualitative as something that cannot even in theory be explained by natural means. If it is impossible to explain "quality" by any means other than "it's unexplainable" then I see no utility in even discussing it.


What if we were to take it as a basis for reality and attempt to extrapolate the physical world, and indeed the nature of physical explanation itself, from there? I don't know if that's possible but it would certainly be an interesting far-reaching solution.


Why is that a problem? Actions may be described by third person account or by first person experience.

But third person account is an assumed reality that only manifests as first person experience. I may be drifting into solipsism but what the hell...

Brains doing what they do are simply actions. It's a very special type of action, but it is the quintessence of action, nearly constant action. That we expereience through this action is kind of interesting I think. That we can look at neurons firing simply means that we can describe the process from the outside. But that description will not be the experiences we are having. The best it can do is explain why we experience. I think that is worth investigating.

I can't remeber if I've already given this reply to you but imagine two scenarios:

a) we have the outside description and the inside experience

b) we have the ouside description and no inside experience

If you think a) and b) are simultaneously possible you must believe in an experience-independent reality and you have to define what experience means and ultimatley explain why a) differs from b).
 
But doesn't that make it clear that experience cannot be explained by physical relationships?

No. It makes it clear that thought is the medium for knowledge. It means nothing else.

What if we were to take it as a basis for reality and attempt to extrapolate the physical world, and indeed the nature of physical explanation itself, from there? I don't know if that's possible but it would certainly be an interesting far-reaching solution.

You are perfectly welcome to try. I simply see another road.

But third person account is an assumed reality that only manifests as first person experience. I may be drifting into solipsism but what the hell...

The first person reality might be just as equally assumed. If the only thing we can be sure of is that thought is, we cannot be sure of any of thought's contents. First-person, third-person, what's the difference? Is first-person simply a language-creation? Is it possibly a story we tell? Who knows?

I can't remeber if I've already given this reply to you but imagine two scenarios:

a) we have the outside description and the inside experience

b) we have the ouside description and no inside experience

If you think a) and b) are simultaneously possible you must believe in an experience-independent reality and you have to define what experience means and ultimatley explain why a) differs from b).

I thought that was the whole point of discussing feelings. We have motivational, emotional, somatosensory, etc. systems and current computers do not. That is the difference as far as I can tell. I could be wrong, but I think it is worth investigating.
 
I'll have to agree to disagree. My head's spinning and I need some time off from all of this philosophical malarkey
 
It seems that JustGeoff has retired, but in his memory, I offer this observation from G.K. Chesterton:

"The man who really thinks he has an idea will always try to explain that idea. The Charlatan who has no idea will always confine himself to explaining that it is much too subtle to be explained.... The quack lives not by plunging into mystery, but by refusing to come out of it."
 

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