For the purpose of this review, ‘pornography’ is defined as ‘any media (including: internet, books, videos, magazines etc.) intended to sexually arouse consumers through the depiction of nudity or explicit sexual behaviour.’
Thank you for answering and for providing a coherent definition.
Now that we have a definition to consider, I and others can evaluate it and decide whether to support or oppose a law banning pornography based on it.
I want adults to be able to make and sell media works intended to sexually arouse consumers through the depiction of adult nudity or explicit adult sexual behavior. Not all conceivable such works, but some of them. So, I'm opposed.
I like attractive nude pictures and statues. I like emotionally relevant sex scenes in novels and movies. I'm demisexual so I actually don't like most conventional porn, but for instance a nude-in-bed no-genitals-visible first kiss between a slow-burn romantic couple five years into the run of a webcomic can make me squeal like a weebu, and you want to ban that. No thanks. Go live in a monastery if you want to, and leave the rest of us alone.
You're going to want to say something like, "that means you want pedophiles blah blah children blah blah" but neither your ban language nor my reason for opposing it mentions children. If you want to make laws about children, make them specifically about children, not "consumers."
There are a few other issues with your definition, though they may be moot at this point. I looked up several legal definitions of "consumer" associated with various existing laws, and all of them define consumer in terms of paid transactions of goods and services. Porn that's on public display or otherwise offered for free might, it could be challenged in court, involves no "consumers."
And yes, there have long been laws based on intent, but the practice in most cases is to judge intent by a reasonable-person standard based on the acts in question. For instance, "intent to distribute" controlled substances is usually straightforwardly charged based on the verifiable fact of the amount possessed, not on reading the suspect's mind or looking for "distribute the controlled substances today" notations in their day planners. If a passage in a novel describes in detail a character's attractiveness to another character (a part of life that is also therefore often a part of fiction), and that description happens to also arouse the reader, was that the author's intent or was the intent to account for why the character was aroused, for the sake of the story? How do you decide that, in a courtroom?