Christianity is a grotesque blight!

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Replying to this modbox in thread will be off topic  Posted By: Darat
 
Yes thanks for that; I am trying to find the stories I saw (possibly first on https://www.haaretz.com/archaeology) about some early inscriptions to Yahweh in the Sinai region suggesting a link with smithing as well.

https://www.haaretz.com/archaeology...w-theory/0000017f-dc86-d3ff-a7ff-fda6aa390000


TIMNA – Around 3,200 years ago, the great empires around the Mediterranean and the Middle East suddenly imploded. The Egyptians retreated from Canaan and the copper mines of Timna in the Negev, skulking back to the banks of the Nile. And in the arid wastes of southern Canaan, a new power arose.

The Timna mines were taken over by semi-nomadic tribes, which set up a mining operation that dwarfed the previous Egyptian industry.

also

https://www.haaretz.com/archaeology...-judaism/0000017f-f0a3-df98-a5ff-f3affe360000

That treasure was a nearly 3,000-year-old inscription in which the king of Moab boasts of his victories against the Kingdom of Israel and its god YHWH. Called the stele of Mesha, it contains the earliest known extra-biblical mention of the deity worshipped by Jews, Christians and Muslims and, since its discovery in 1868, it has fueled the argument over the historicity of the Bible.

Mesha explains that the Israelite king Omri succeeded in conquering Moab only because “Chemosh was angry with his land” – a trope that finds many parallels in the Bible, where the Israelites’ misfortunes are invariably attributed to the wrath of God. It is again Chemosh who decides to restore Moab to its people and speaks directly to Mesha, telling him “Go take Nebo from Israel,” just as God routinely speaks to Israelite prophets and leaders in the Bible. And in conquering Nebo, Mesha recounts how he massacred the entire population as an act of dedication (“cherem” in the original) to his gods – the exact same word and brutal practice used in the Bible to seal the fate of Israel’s bitterest enemies (for example the Amalekites in 1 Samuel 15:3).
Cherem is distinct from sacrifice in my opinion. One key difference I would say is that sacrifices usually involve sacrificing something of value to yourself.
 
Cherem is distinct from sacrifice in my opinion. One key difference I would say is that sacrifices usually involve sacrificing something of value to yourself.


How does genocidewhile conquering Nebo by an Egyptian Pharaoh as cherem have anything at all that might negate 2 Samuel 21 being a proof of YHWH causing misery and demanding human sacrifice to stop doing it and getting appeased by the human sacrifice when Israelite David handed over 7 Israelite boys to his slaves to make a human sacrifice of to YHWH so as to stop the famine YHWH was wreaking and he accepted the sacrifice and stopped the blight???


...that sacrifices usually involve sacrificing something of value to yourself.


Aren't 7 Israelite grandchildren of Saul the Israelite king valuable to Israelites???

Aren't the family of Israelite Achan and his daughters and sons valuable to Israelites???

How does the genocide in Nebo by an Egyptian Pharaoh have any resemblance or relevance to Joshua 7 where an entire Israelite family was burned as a human sacrifice to YHWH at the commands of YHWH in order to appease YHWH so that he would remove a CURSE that YHWH put on the Israelites and stopped aiding and leading war crimes???
 
...
So YHWH ... told David to agree to making a human sacrifice of 7 boys TO YHWH via the slave-Gibeonites....

No.

The "via" part is your invention.
The "sacrifice" part is your invention.

It was revenge. Plain and simple.

Your claims are FALSE.

QED.
 
...7 Israelite boys...


Where does it say the people executed in 2 Samuel were boys? They were of the generation following David's (of whom David was on the younger side, being the 7th or 8th son of Jesse), and David was already elderly in the latter years of his reign toward the end of 2 Samuel.

Sure the passage describes the individuals killed as "sons of" other people, but, well, that's true of all males, at least by the definition of "male" that applied in those benighted ancient times.

Does calling them "7 boys" just make it sound more sacrificial?
 
Where does it say the people executed in 2 Samuel were boys? They were of the generation following David's (of whom David was on the younger side, being the 7th or 8th son of Jesse), and David was already elderly in the latter years of his reign toward the end of 2 Samuel.

Sure the passage describes the individuals killed as "sons of" other people, but, well, that's true of all males, at least by the definition of "male" that applied in those benighted ancient times.

Does calling them "7 boys" just make it sound more sacrificial?

Also, in such ancient times, and indeed in not nearly as ancient times, it has in places been a known practice to wipe out entire families in punishment for various transgressions of a single individual, or to ensure that sons did not grow up to revenge their father.

Anyway after all that has been said, I still struggle to understand exactly what it is Leumas wants to prove here. All that is in evidence is that someone wrote about an incident where some people were killed, and then the author claims that this influenced the actions of the preferred god at the time.

We cannot know if the whole incident is historical or fictional, and in particular the interaction from the god is obviously entirely unevidenced and must be assumed fictional.

Hans
 
If the idea is to say that there are passages in the bible which condone, or promote human sacrifice, then I'd probably agree. But there are also passages in the Old Testament which condemn it. And as has been said before, promotion of genocidal atrocities to please whichever Cananite deity one is thinking of, does look different to what is usually considered to be a human sacrifice
 
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Replying to this modbox in thread will be off topic  Posted By: Agatha
 
If the idea is to say that there are passages in the bible which condone, or promote human sacrifice, then I'd probably agree. But there are also passages in the Old Testament which condemn it. And as has been said before, promotion of genocidal atrocities to please whichever Cananite deity one is thinking of, does look different to what is usually considered to be a human sacrifice

ALL gods demand a human sacrifice - including the Christian one. It's what gods do.
 
ALL gods demand a human sacrifice - including the Christian one. It's what gods do.

That's pretty simplistic.

I'm not sure that Aphrodite, or Osiris demanded human sacrifice, for example or indeed many Greek deities, which often had animal sacrifices.
 
ALL gods demand a human sacrifice - including the Christian one. It's what gods do.

I think that (and likely the whole argument here) hinges on how you define a sacrifice. You can always say on one hand that gods, in general at least, demand nasty things, usually including the murder of their opponents and bloody deeds of one sort or another. YHWH is notorious for this. If you decide that demanding, requesting, rewarding or encouraging such things is sacrifice, then the argument makes itself. In fact, it so makes itself that chapter and verse citations are unnecessary ornament. Everybody knows that the OT god as portrayed in the Bible is nasty and bloodthirsty.

If, however, you define sacrifice as a ceremonial event, in which certain specified things are done in specified ways, as the ritual sacrifices of the Old Testament are described, then the argument falls apart.

I would suggest, for example, that if God tells you to raid a city and murder everyone that pisseth against a wall, and expresses his pleasure in the result, that is not a sacrifice if, at any time thereafter, the same God still demands a ritual sacrifice. If, after genocidally wiping out the population of a city, the same God says "now you need to go burn a goat on the altar," he has effectively separated the massacre from the sacrifice.

It doesn't make old YHWH any better. From any viewpoint other than that of his chosen people, it makes him worse. But it does not make the two things the same either.
 
If, however, you define sacrifice as a ceremonial event, in which certain specified things are done in specified ways, as the ritual sacrifices of the Old Testament are described, then the argument falls apart.


So according to your above definition Jesus' farcical melodrama was not a sacrifice either... just another execution of an imbecilic pathetic cultist.

I wonder how many Christians would agree with you there? I'll bet that they will go through all sorts of mental contortions and wily twists of language in order to REDFEINE English words their own way so as to make Jesus' pointless melodrama still be a sacrifice but also at the same time carry on absolving his deadbeat sky daddy of being a human sacrifice loving, demanding and accepting monster.


I think that (and likely the whole argument here) hinges on how you define a sacrifice.


If you look at post #56 (in response to your previous attempt at redefining the English term) and post #59 and post #74 and post #80 and post #101 you will see the correct definition of the phrase human sacrifice.


... But it does not make the two things the same either.


Yes of course... if one redefines anything every which way but the correct way, then conveniently and fallaciously and sophistically, nothing is ever the same.
 
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I wonder how many Christians would agree with you there? I'll bet that they will go through all sorts of mental contortions and wily twists of language in order to REDFEINE English words

Etymology of sacrifice (n.)
late 13c., "the offering of something (especially a life) to a deity as an act of propitiation, homage, etc.;" mid-14c., "that which is offered (to a deity) in sacrifice," from Old French sacrifise "sacrifice, offering" (12c.), from Latin sacrificium, from sacrificus "performing priestly functions or sacrifices," etymologically "a making sacred," from sacra "sacred rites" (properly neuter plural of sacer "sacred;" see sacred) + combining form of facere "to make, to do" (from PIE root *dhe- "to set, put").

Originally especially of Christ's propitiatory offering of himself for the world. Latin sacrificium is glossed in Old English by ansegdniss. The general sense of "act of giving up a desirable thing for a higher object or to a more pressing claim," also "something given up for the sake of another" is recorded from 1590s.

The word 'sacrificium' as used by Christians predates the English language by several hundred years, and its meaning hasn't changed significantly since then.

If you look at post #56 (in response to your previous attempt at redefining the English term) and post #59 and post #74 and post #80 and post #101 you will see the correct definition of the phrase human sacrifice.

Not the same thing.

Jesus didn't offer up a human sacrifice, he gave up his own life so that others no longer had to give up things dear to them in order to atone for their sins. And it worked too. 'Jesus died for your sins' was a huge draw-card for the Christian church.
 
So according to your above definition Jesus' farcical melodrama was not a sacrifice either... just another execution of an imbecilic pathetic cultist.
I'm sure that's how the Roman governor of Judaea saw it. And given that Jeshua ben Joseph probably thought that he was going to lead a revolution, expel the Romans and take the throne of David, he was likely right.

I wonder how many Christians would agree with you there? I'll bet that they will go through all sorts of mental contortions and wily twists of language in order to REDFEINE English words their own way so as to make Jesus' pointless melodrama still be a sacrifice but also at the same time carry on absolving his deadbeat sky daddy of being a human sacrifice loving, demanding and accepting monster.
Maybe you should go find some Christians to argue with?

If you look at post #56 (in response to your previous attempt at redefining the English term) and post #59 and post #74 and post #80 and post #101 you will see the correct definition of the phrase human sacrifice.

Yes of course... if one redefines anything every which way but the correct way, then conveniently and fallaciously and sophistically, nothing is ever the same.
Bruto isn't redefining anything. He's simply pointing out that there are various interpretations. But you clearly aren't Interested in having a discussion. You never say, "here's what I think - what do you think?". All your threads start with a proclamation from on high, and then declarations that everyone but you is wrong. Hell, even if people don't disagree with something you say, you still treat them as though they do. Any actually interesting discussion arising from your threads rarely, if ever, seems to involve you.
 
Etymology of sacrifice (n.)...


Great... start a thread about that and let's discuss it...

This thread is about HUMAN SACRIFICE... and how YHWH demanded and commanded and accepted and was appeased by it...

AND... more specifically about 2 Samuel 21 and Joshua 7 as irrefragable proof for that.
 
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... But you clearly aren't Interested in having a discussion. You never say, "here's what I think - what do you think?". All your threads start with a proclamation from on high, and then declarations that everyone but you is wrong. Hell, even if people don't disagree with something you say, you still treat them as though they do. Any actually interesting discussion arising from your threads rarely, if ever, seems to involve you.


Which is as it should be irrespective of how many times you try to make it so.

The topic of the discussion is not me as you seem to be yet again for the umpteenth time trying to make it...

The topic of this OP is

...
But what also puzzles me is the poor quality of polemicists' proofs for YHWH's appetite for human sacrifice.

...
Afterwards.... the more versed polemicists ...

... casuistry that might beguile many polemicists, who then just give up in disgust and bewilderment.

However... there are verses that I never see any polemicists use...

I think the following verses are impossible to refute as an airtight clinching case for YHWH being a demander and accepter and enjoyer of human blood sacrifice. ....

I am, nevertheless, intrigued what agnostics and secular-theists and even atheists might be able to concoct in rebuttal to these verses being an impossible to thwart proof that YHWH is a blood sacrifice demander and accepter and enjoyer.....




And any person who can read the above... can clearly see that it arrantly belies the ad hominem below...

... But you clearly aren't Interested in having a discussion. You never say, "here's what I think - what do you think?"...
 
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I know it's rather pointless, especially since we're dealing here with the often contradictory actions of fictional characters, but the issue of Jesus can be seen in more than one way.

I think most Christians, and certainly many vociferous and sign-toting ones, refer to John 3:16 as a statement that God is the giver, not the taker, of whatever sacrifice occurred. It's supposed to be a massive guilt trip for us, not himself. The question of whether the human manifestation of God is even properly a human being is rather cloudy, especially if we presume, as the Bible does, that the very conception and birth of Jesus, as well as that of his mother, was a carefully planned act by God himself. If you hold with the trinity, you could end up with God sacrificing himself to himself.

Of course the whole story is difficult if you assume God to be omniscient or even a competent judge of what's going on, since the whole point of it is that humanity is given a chance to get behind Jesus and blows it, which an omniscient god, or even one with a head for statistics, would have predicted, which makes the whole story a foregone conclusion and an unnecessary complication. A gigantic, "now see what you made me do." In that sense, I suppose you could say he did sacrifice himself to himself, being as he is a master of self-indulgent psychodrama.

Of course if you want to go with hard predestination, you'll have to conclude that God engineers everything, and that would mean that indeed, he both gave and took Jesus, tossed him into the world like a boomerang, knowing all along what would happen, but perhaps just enjoying it as one might a well rehearsed dance.
 
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... you'll have to conclude that God engineers everything, and that would mean that indeed, he both gave and took Jesus, tossed him into the world like a boomerang, knowing all along what would happen, but perhaps just enjoying it as one might a well rehearsed dance.


Yes... much like what Jesus' deadbeat sky daddy did in 2 Samuel 21 ... and in Joshua 7...

YHWH engineered a CURSE ... and told the leaders how to remove the curse by giving him human sacrifice... which he accepted and by which he was appeased and consequently removed the curse.

I suggest you read this carefully.... and which I posted in post #56 (in response to your previous attempt at redefining the English term) and post #59 and post #74 and post #80 and post #101 and which is the correct definition of the phrase human sacrifice.

Human Sacrifice,

the offering of the life of a human being to a deity.

The occurrence of human sacrifice can usually be related to the recognition of human blood as the sacred life force. Bloodless forms of killing, however, such as strangulation and drowning, have been used in some cultures. The killing of a human being, or the substitution of an animal for a person, has often been part of an attempt to commune with a god and to participate in divine life. Human life, as the most valuable material for sacrifice, has also been offered in an attempt at expiation.



ETA: I also suggest you read this post and this one too.
 
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