One of my gripes with LondonJohn's usage of that term is that within the context of his arguments and his position... he ends up defining the experience of gender dysphoria as a "valid lived condition" as if that dysphoria somehow creates an experience of "womanhood" that is accepted as valid.
But at the same time... his position and his arguments repeatedly and persistently denigrate the experiences of females in society as being overreactions, not real, and irrelevant.
So at the end of the day, as far as I can tell from LondonJohn's invented terminology, it seems like a person who is born and raised male, with the experience of a male body and of the way society treats a male person... but who views themselves as a woman is *more valid* than the experience of a person who was born and raised female, with the experience of a female body and the the way society treats a female person.
For all the arguments that not granting male-bodied people access to anything and everything "woman", we are somehow debating their existence and invalidating their identities... It's females that keep getting told that our experiences don't matter, our concern is irrelevant, and our safety is not a concern.![]()
While I agree with you about LondonJohn's tendency to dismiss female concerns, I'd like to point out that the highlighted is debatable and may not be correct beyond a surface level. Yes, they have a male body. But they may not be treated as "one of the boys" growing up. I'm not positive, but I suspect that a male trans person may feel a bit isolated from thier peer groups growing up. Consequently, I'm not sure they experience the way society treats males in the same way cis-males do.
It would be an interesting question for Boudicca, were she still participating in the thread, assuming she was comfortable talking about it.
The other thing to point out: This statement seems to presume that the bulk of identity or personality results from environmental conditions and experiences. And that may be correct. But it also may be correct that a significant portion may be innate. There is a field called "behavioral genetics" for a reason.
If you consider the experience portion to represent everything significant in gender, you can make a case for lack of commonality between cis and trans women. But if you consider the genetic contribution significant, you can also make the case for significant overlap that is common between cis and trans women but not cis and trans men.
So how do you classify someone who has (in terms of behavior/gender, not sex) biological commonality with women but, due to sex, an environmental component closer to that of men? Could you truly say they are either?