searchengineguy
Student
Can anyone else see that this is a very strong argument from silence?
The above argument stands alone as the last word on the historicity of Jesus, without going down any more rabbit holes. If Christians acknowledge that from their OWN texts that the most secular and most probable name of their hero was what was mentioned 17 times therein, including what he referred to as his own name, then they must also acknowledge why no-one external to their story book mentioned him for over 1,000 years.
I actually know a couple of those, can you explain what you think they'd believe?Maybe you should present your argument to an Historian of the Ancient Near East, I doubt they will agree with you.
And what conspiracy do you think he'd be suggesting? "Entire branch" suggests you think all historians agree on something. What do you think they agree on and can you substantiate it?Please don't try to tell me that an entire branch of Academia is in on some kind of conspiracy.
Maybe you should present your argument to an Historian of the Ancient Near East, I doubt they will agree with you.
I actually know a couple of those, can you explain what you think they'd believe?
And what conspiracy do you think he'd be suggesting? "Entire branch" suggests you think all historians agree on something. What do you think they agree on and can you substantiate it?
I think that you are missing my point. I'm not talking about any old Jesus, I'm talking about the character named "Jesus of Nazareth". If every scholar that has appeared on these threads was of that opinion, it doesn't mean that it is true. It may even mean that the consensus of opinion is biased and acting on faulty assumptions. How do you say that the modern translations are taken out of context? Are you saying that they are NOT talking about a character named Jesus of Nazareth, Jesus the Nazarene or King of the Jews?Well, every single one of them that has ever participated in any of these HJ threads (and there has been a few) has been of the opinion that there was most likely a preacher named Jesus at the start of Xtianity. They base that on years of study, not a couple of youtube videos or a few modern translations taken out of context.
Whoa! Whence does that conspiracy cometh? Citation please? Have you heard of Robert Price, Raphael Lataster etc?The conspiracy pushed by people like Richard Carrier that everyone who studies the subject is a fundamentalist Christian sworn to uphold Xtian dogma.
Well, if that name only appears once or twice in the whole book, then no, they're mostly not doing that. They're talking about lots of other things about a guy named Jesus but mostly ignoring the Nazarwhatever subject. The original authors or translators/transcribers somewhere along the line could have gotten that one irrelevant point wrong and still been right about practically everything about him.Are you saying that they are NOT talking about a character named Jesus of Nazareth, Jesus the Nazarene or King of the Jews?
Hi Delvo, no you missed what I said about that on the previous page. It wasn't just stated once or twice, "Jesus of Nazareth" was mentioned 17 times, including him referring to himself as such.Well, if that name only appears once or twice in the whole book, then no, they're mostly not doing that. They're talking about lots of other things about a guy named Jesus but mostly ignoring the Nazarwhatever subject. The original authors or translators/transcribers somewhere along the line could have gotten that one irrelevant point wrong and still been right about practically everything about him.
Sure, according to the NT Jesus of Nazareth was wildly famous and followed by large crowds. If you don't believe that, what makes you think that it is false? I think it's false because there is no evidence beyond the NT.OK searchengineguy, maybe I'm missing your point. Can you explain to me why you expect to see references to "Jesus of Nazareth" in other texts?
How can you tell that? If he was so obscure, and came from the backwoods, then how did he gather followers?As far as I can tell, he was an obscure preacher during his lifetime.
Which James do you say is his brother and how do you know that beyond the NT?His brother James was more famous because he led the Jesus movement for about 30 years. Look him up.
Sure, according to the NT Jesus of Nazareth was wildly famous and followed by large crowds. If you don't believe that, what makes you think that it is false? I think it's false because there is no evidence beyond the NT.
How can you tell that? If he was so obscure, and came from the backwoods, then how did he gather followers? Which James do you say is his brother and how do you know that beyond the NT?
I have noticed that throughout the threads about the Jesus Myth, members are referring to a "Jesus" or a "Christ". There have been lots of people known as Jesus, Christ, Messiah, Lord etc, but there was only one Jesus of Nazareth character. It seems to be the most rational and secular name for the "Historical" Jesus of the NT. He even calls himself that in Acts 22:8
New International Version
8 “‘Who are you, Lord?’ I asked.
“ ‘I am Jesus of Nazareth, whom you are persecuting,’ he replied."
And he said, Who art thou, Lord? And the Lord said, I am Jesus whom thou persecutest: it is hard for thee to kick against the pricks.
And I said, Who art thou, Lord? And he said, I am Jesus whom thou persecutest.
I agree! I am only being the devil's advocate.Acts of the Apostles is one of the worst books to use to argue for an HJ.
Absolutely. I have no idea why any atheist would look for "kernels" of evidence to support it, whatever they are.There was no Jesus of Nazareth as claimed in the NT based on existing evidence of antiquity.
Also ancient Jewish people would not use the phrase, King of The Jews" they would use the designation "King of Israel".The key issue is the title "King of the Jews" (ΒΑΣΙΛΕΥΣ ΤΩΝ ΙΟΥΔΑΙΩΝ in Greek). At best only three Herods held this formal title: Herod the Great, Herod Agrippa I, and Herod Agrippa II When Herod the Great died, his kingdom was broken up between this three sons: Herod Archelaus (Ethnarch of Judaea 4 BCE – 6 CE), Herod Antipas (Tetrarch of Galilee 4 BCE - 41 CE), and "Herod" Philip II (Tetrarch of Batanea 4 BCE – 34 CE). Archelaus was removed 6 CE with Judea governed by Roman prefects until Herod Agrippa I came to power in 41 CE. Furthermore, while some later books have called Herod Agrippa II "king of the Jews", he in truth never ruled over the Judea province.
Also ancient Jewish people would not use the phrase, King of The Jews" they would use the designation "King of Israel".
John 1:49, NIV: "Then Nathanael declared, 'Rabbi, you are the Son of God; you are the king of Israel. ... John 1:49, KJV: "Nathanael answered and saith unto him, Rabbi, thou art the Son of God; thou art the King of Israel."Except that "Israel" did not exist in the time period we are talking about. In fact, "Israel" had stopped existing in 722 BCE when the Neo-Assyrian Empire conquered it. You had Syria, Judea, and Arabia in that area...no "Israel"; you can't have a king of a country that no longer exists. This is why past 1881 there were no more kings/princes of Wallachia - that country no longer existed being woven into the larger country of Romania.
John 1:49, NIV: "Then Nathanael declared, 'Rabbi, you are the Son of God; you are the king of Israel. ... John 1:49, KJV: "Nathanael answered and saith unto him, Rabbi, thou art the Son of God; thou art the King of Israel."
In GospJohn, those Jews who look favorably upon him *do* call him King of Israel (see also 12:13). His adversaries call him King of the Jews.
Maximara, these were rebel kings they were in denial about Roman power and in their own heads they were kings of an obviously non existent country.
Ok, I'll go along with that, thanks for your insight and knowledge. What do you think about my Jesus of Nazareth argument? Btw, are you a Christian?These are English translations of the Greek; I go to Greek Bible as it reveals if any translation tinkering has gone on.
Here is John 1:49 in what I think is 2nd century Greek (miniscules ie lower case letters didn't appear until around the 8th century CE):
ΑΠΕΚΡΙΘΗ ΑΥΤΩ ΝΑΘΑΝΑΗΛ ΡΑΒΒΙ ΣΥ ΕΙ Ο ΥΙΟΣ ΤΟΥ ΘΕΟΥ ΣΥ ΒΑΣΙΛΕΥΣ ΕΙ ΤΟΥ ΙΣΡΑΗΛ.
ΒΑΣΙΛΕΥΣ is a weird word in the Greek as it can mean leader of the people, prince, commander, lord of the land as well as "king". The EI means "to be, to exist, to happen, to be present". So the structure here is a little weird.
ΙΣΡΑΗΛ also has several meanings likely referring to the people of Israel rather than the nation of Israel. The modern equivalent would be a native born American saying they were Irish, Dutch, Asian, etc.
Never mind John is regarded as the latest Gospels post dating Luke which has a date as late as 130 CE among scholars.
That doesn't fly as Rome didn't conquer Judah 63 BCE about 6 centuries after the nation of Israel was gone. The "Israel" here likely refers to "people of Israel" rather to any nation of that name.