Jabba has disproven his own argument, so I'm wondering why anyone is still arguing with him about anything else. It just gives him room to avoid addressing his own disproof. Here it is in more detail.
Jabba has stated that P(H) > 0, P(~H) > 0 and P(E) = 1. Now, the denominator in Bayes' Theorem is
P(E) = P(E|H)P(H) + P(E|~H)P(~H) .
Now, one can see by inspection that for P(E) to be 1 and P(H) and P(~H) to both be non-zero, P(E|H) and P(E|H) must both be 1 (which I've been saying all along).
Plugging these values into Bayes' Theorem,
P(H|E) = P(E|H)P(H) / P(E)
P(H|E) = (1)P(H) / 1
P(H|E) = P(H) .
Likewise, (P~H|E) = P(~H) .
That is, the posterior probabilities of H and ~H just equal their prior probabilities. Jabba's "evidence" E is not evidence for ~H over H, or H over ~H. It doesn't discriminate between H and ~H at all.
So, as long as he maintains that P(E) = 1 and that both H and ~H are non-zero, his Bayes argument is mathematically wrong. So, it seems to me, to be counterproductive to argue with him about any other aspect of his argument, unless and until he can fix this problem or finally admits that he's been wrong and gives up.