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For Kapyong: Defending a historical Jesus

Christian writers of antiquity have already shown the letters under the name of Paul were used to argue that Jesus was God made flesh without a human father.

Jesus in the letters under the name of Paul was made flesh by God without a human father like Adam in the fiction/myth fables called Genesis.

http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/0315.htm



On the Flesh of Christ 16

A word of caution, however, must be addressed to all who refuse to believe that our flesh was in Christ on the ground that it came not of the seed of a human father, let them remember that Adam himself received this flesh of ours without the seed of a human father. As earth was converted into this flesh of ours without the seed of a human father, so also was it quite possible for the Son of God to take to Himself the substance of the selfsame flesh, without a human father's agency.


On the Flesh of Christ 17

As, then, the first Adam is thus introduced to us, it is a just inference that the second Adam likewise, as the apostle has told us, was formed by God into a quickening spirit out of the ground—in other words, out of a flesh which was unstained as yet by any human generation.

Why are posters today attempting to mis-represent the letters under the name of Paul?

The Jesus in the letters under the name of Paul was God/Man/Spirit without a human father.
 
Which is what Irenaeus says through Against Heresies, and what Tertuallian asserts in On the Flesh of Christ

Irenaeus' presentation of Christ as the New Adam is based on Paul's Christ-Adam parallel in Romans 5:12-21. Irenaeus uses this parallel to assert that Christ truly took human flesh.

Irenaeus' Against Heresies Bk III, Chap. 18, v.7



Tertullian, in On the Flesh of Christ, chapter 19,

ie. they had to re-write Him as having been a human
It is of no concern to me what Irenaeus and Tertullian wrote, let alone what they supposedly "re-wrote".
 
Oh sure; it's not going to stop ("phase") devout Christians from simply ignoring such passages as if they don't exist. But that's a religious "faith-denial". That's the same sort of denial by which the faithful believe in supernatural miracles, answered & rewarded prayers, and faith healing etc.

But here we have examples of self-declared atheists, insisting that Paul's letters are the evidence which shows Paul believed Jesus to be a human preacher, when in fact the letters (e.g. Phillipians) very clearly and quite unarguably state the precise opposite and declare that he was not a human man! (see footnote re, "the evidence").

Err... no. That's not what I'm saying. I'm not talking about the religious having faith in Jesus. I'm talking about the fact that if you want to find a "historical" anything in a story, the parts that aren't conforming aren't going to stop you, are they? The WHOLE idea is to discard all the parts proclaiming Jesus's divinity or superpowers and pretend that what's left is surely the historical guy. So one more paragraph saying that Jesus is divine, well, is just one more paragraph to ignore.

I mean, as a direct equivalence, imagine that I was deranged enough to believe in a historical Kara Zor-El (Super Girl) that I reconstruct from comics and the series I watched on Amazon Prime. No, of course she's not from Krypton and can't fly. See, those are details that were added later by the believers. But the rest is totally true. The part where she convinces a robber to give up while not having any powers? The parts where she has to deal with her aunt's eco-terrorist actions? THAT's the real Kara Zorel.

What makes you think that pointing me at the parts where the authors say that no, really, she came from Krypton, is going to change my mind? You know, given that that's exactly the parts that I'm explicitly ignoring.

Well, that's the same here. Pointing out that Jesus came from Krypton... err... from being a Godly being in the 7'th Heaven, isn't going to faze anyone who explicitly thinks they can ignore those parts and be left with the real Jebus.
 
It is of no concern to me what Irenaeus and Tertullian wrote, let alone what they supposedly "re-wrote".

Right. You're not interested in what actual early Xians actually believed, you can just pull out of the hat what the story is REALLY based on. Silly me. And here I thought we were actually trying to reconstruct what they believed, not what you have faith in.
 
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Just for the record, the problems I have with that kind of reconstruction by just strippintg away the magical parts, are that:

A) one still hasn't shown any support for those parts actually happening. Just saying that it COULD have happened -- by mere virtue of not being physically impossible -- doesn't mean it DID happen.

I mean I could be a student of arcane and esoteric lore, very learned indeed in all things pertaining to the arcane/metaphysical/supernatural like that schizophrenic ex-GF got from her visions. And, hey, we have at least one source for that, like we have Paul for Jesus. And she had faith enough in that arcane lore to think I could save her from her ghosts.

And there's nothing impossible about that, if you strip away the magical parts. You know, where she thought I actually could do magic. I mean, I could have studied old magical and alchemical texts, and I could have claimed expertise in that. I could very well have been some kind of (misguided) exorcist by trade, if you try to reconstruct a historical her-magical-boyfriend from her delusions.

But the simple fact remains that I'm none of that, and never actually claimed such expertise, nor ever actually exorcised ghosts out of anyone. "It's not impossible" for a reconstruction is not even nearly the same thing as being necessarily true.

B) most of the non-supernatural parts are really just setting the stage for Jesus to do his miracle, or to deliver some wisdom that wouldn't have even worked IRL. Like to get him to settle people's being irked by the Roman coins having the emperor's face on them, because they think it's idolatry, by pointing out that... they have the emperor's face on them. And everyone is so amazed, and everything is instantly settled because Captain Obvious pointed out exactly the thing they were annoyed about.

There is very little else in there about Jesus. He's not just a Black Hole Sue kind of a Mary Sue, he's an automaton even by Mary Sue standards. He has NO life or deeds or opinions outside such staged episodes for him to say what the author wants Xianity to say. All the episodes are at most such a setup for what's about to happen, then what happens is Jesus entering the stage and delivering his line or doing his miracle, then he exits the stage.

But that's not something you can base a reconstruction on. You have no information that isn't tainted by being just such a manufactured setting up the stage.

C) that ultimately it works the same for any story you want. You can use it to find a historical Sherlock Holmes -- as indeed a lot of people did -- or a historical Anakin Skywalker or a historical Super-Girl. You can use it to find the historical Francis Wayland Thurston from Lovecraft's "Call Of Cthulhu". Or whatever.
 
It is of no concern to me what Irenaeus and Tertullian wrote, let alone what they supposedly "re-wrote".
.
I'm talking about the fact that if you want to find a "historical" anything in a story, the parts that aren't conforming aren't going to stop you, are they? The WHOLE idea is to discard all the parts proclaiming Jesus's divinity or superpowers and pretend that what's left is surely the 'historical' guy.
Furthermore, if one wants to create the notion of a 'real' flesh & blood entity: a key idea would be to disparage all the parts proclaiming his non-flesh & blood nature/nativity, and portray Him as having always been a real, historical guy.

As Irenaeus and Tertullian do, by disparaging previous early Christians as heretics.
 
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Right. You're not interested in what actual early Xians actually believed, you can just pull out of the hat what the story is REALLY based on. Silly me. And here I thought we were actually trying to reconstruct what they believed, not what you have faith in.
Irenaeus and Tertullian tell us about the reality of Jesus, do they? Their speculations are relevant to what Paul thought about the historicity of Jesus, are they?

ETA
“At that greatest of all spectacles, that last and eternal judgment how shall I admire, how laugh, how rejoice, how exult, when I behold so many proud monarchs groaning in the lowest abyss of darkness; so many magistrates liquefying in fiercer flames than they ever kindled against the Christians; so many sages philosophers blushing in red-hot fires with their deluded pupils; so many tragedians more tuneful in the expression of their own sufferings; so many dancers tripping more nimbly from anguish then ever before from applause."

“What a spectacle. . .when the world. . .and its many products, shall be consumed in one great flame! How vast a spectacle then bursts upon the eye! What there excites my admiration? What my derision? Which sight gives me joy? As I see. . .illustrious monarchs. . . groaning in the lowest darkness, Philosophers. . .as fire consumes them! ” etc etc etc​
Tertullian De Spectaculis, Chapter XXX
 
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The story of supernatural Jesus can best be explained thus:

1. People make up stuff.

2. People believe the made-up stuff and make up more stuff.

3. GOTO 1
​
 
They tell us about the reality of anthropomorphizing Christ as Jesus.

Hypostatizing. Cementing. Reifying. Euhemerizing.
That is bizarre. Scroll up a page on this thread and see some euhemerising anthropomorphism I cite from Tertullian, eg, and if you want to divert this discussion into third century gibberish I suppose we'll have a bit of fun at least, cos there's no end to the hypostasising and cementing we'll come across in such literature.
 
which I won't see, b/c you don't.
I see this, though, which is twice as good!
... fire consumes them! Poets trembling before the judgment-seat of. . .Christ! I shall hear the tragedians, louder-voiced in their own calamity; view play-actors. . .in the dissolving flame; behold wrestlers, not in their gymnasia, but tossing in the fiery billows. . .What inquisitor or priest in his munificence will bestow on you the favor of seeing and exulting in such things as these? Yet even now we in a measure have them by faith in the picturings of imagination.​
Now, in that judgement-seat, was Christ hypostatized, or cemented, or reified, or euhemerised? Was it the flesh, or the spirit, that occupied that seat? These are the questions that you have set for yourself, and I think you should picture them in your imagination during a protracted period of undisturbed meditation.
 
I see this, though
Not in this thread, though I searched for a few key words, such as poet which, ironically, came up with this -
No doubt poets swarmed the regions of Judea at the time of Christ (...poets with swords no less ...but swords that just hacked metaphorical flesh so no one ever needed so much as a band-aid [maybe a metaphorical band-aid])!
The fact the passage you posted was unlikely to be in this thread is shown by
a. your lack of a link, and
b. your lack of a citation​
Yet you sought a link or citation from me previously.
Edited by Agatha: 
Edited to remove breach of rule 0 and rule 12


[this] is twice as good!
I beg to differ, including how one might emphasize aspects of that passage -viz. -
...view play-actors. . .in the dissolving flame; behold wrestlers, not in their gymnasia, but tossing in the fiery billows. .

Yet even now we, in a measure, have them by faith in the picturings of imagination.​
Your commentary alluded to that last sentence, but in a different way.

I see it as referring to the depictions of imagination.
 
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The Jesus character was no different to myth/fiction characters of the Greeks/Romans. It was the very Romans who made Jesus, the God/Man/Spirit their God.

Examine the Creed of those who canonised letters under the name of Paul.

http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/2804.htm

Letter on the Council of Nicaea
The Faith dictated in the Council.

We believe in One God, the Father Almighty, Maker of all things visible and invisible:—

And in One Lord Jesus Christ, the Son of God, begotten of the Father, Only-begotten, that is, from the essence of the Father; God from God, Light from Light, Very God from Very God, begotten not made, One in essence with the Father, by Whom all things were made, both things in heaven and things in earth; Who for us men and for our salvation came down and was made flesh, was made man, suffered, and rose again the third day, ascended into heaven, and comes to judge quick and dead.

And in the Holy Ghost.

And those who say, 'Once He was not,' and 'Before His generation He was not,' and 'He came to be from nothing,' or those who pretend that the Son of God is 'Of other subsistence or essence ,' or 'created' or 'alterable,' or 'mutable,' the Catholic Church anathematizes.

The NT Canon including the Pauline Corpus were considered non-heretical writings by Christian writers of antiquity which support the fiction God/Man/Spirit called Jesus.
 
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Not in this thread, though I searched for a few key words, such as poet which, ironically, came up with this -

The fact the passage you posted was unlikely to be in this thread is shown by
a. your lack of a link, and
b. your lack of a citation​
Yet you sought a link or citation from me previously.
Edited by Agatha: 
Edited to remove infracted content



I beg to differ, including how one might emphasize aspects of that passage -viz. -

Your commentary alluded to that last sentence, but in a different way.

I see it as referring to the depictions of imagination.
Edited by Agatha: 
Edited to remove response to infracted content
 
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Craig, yes, it's a poem. BUT let's finally address the big fat elephant in the room: so what? What difference does it make?

Common sense says that if Paul didn't believe it to be correct, he wouldn't have included it in a letter to his followers. You don't see him randomly including opinions from James or Peter, that he thought were incorrect. When he even mentions things he disagreed with, he says that he set Peter straight about it. He doesn't just convey the wrong opinions to his follower as something to emulate.

Yet he quotes this poem and transmits the symbolism in it to his followers. So how doesn't it count as some view that Paul had? What sense does it make to pretend that just going "oh, it's a poem" somehow removes it completely from the text?

Hell, it's not even very clear if Paul himself didn't write it. There are no real lexical or stylistic differences. There is some weak argument that Paul's commentary around the poem would have been different, if he could just put it all in the poem, but basically we don't really know what was with that hymn and if he could. If it was some hymn of his church, for example, he couldn't quote it any other way than the actual lyrics it had,

But be that as it may, the fact remains that Paul does quote that hymn, and considers it something that gives SOME message worth giving to his followers. So on what base can one just exclude it from the things Paul believed?


Hans; you and I are really not in disagreement on any of this, and we have been saying almost exactly the same thing in all threads re. the claimed evidence for a HJ etc. However, in your first line of reply to CraigB (highlighted above), where you agree with him that it is a "poem" (CraigB originally claimed it was "a well known hymn") - who has actually shown that passage to be a known poem or a hymn that Paul was quoting?

Here is the reference (the link below) which was CraigB offered earlier to claim that the words in Phillipians 2: 5-11 are well known to be an earlier hymn or "poem" -

http://newlife.id.au/christian-theology/the-creed-of-philippians-2/


Apart from the fact that the link appears to be a religious Christian website (in which case, hardly neutral or unbiased), on that site it seems they are merely suggesting that the words in Phillipians 2: 5-11 could resemble what might be something like the structure of a hymn or poem ... as if to suggest that Paul was merely reciting some earlier author who had written those same words ...

... but afaik, that website/link does not produce any such earlier source showing an earlier supposed writer of any such "poem" or "hymn".

Unless anyone can produce the evidence to show that the words of Phillipians were written long before the time of Paul, then any such attempted excuse like that from a Christian site (?) is quite useless, and is in fact obviously suspicious (i.e., "suspicion" of trying to hand-wave away a paragraph in which Paul makes very clear that he never believed Jesus to be a real human preacher).

And just for the record, when CraigB says that my earlier posts had said this issue was quote "beyond all discussion", (a) he should quote the post so that others can see what was actually said in context, and (b) without that poster providing any link or any quote I can't tell which post of mine he's talking about, but from memory those were probably not quite my words or my sentiments - what I expect I actually said was something more like "if that passage is correct, i.e. actually written by "Paul", then that's an end to any discussion about whether "Paul" thought Jesus was a normal human man". And similarly in a post directly above I just said that passage was a "dead end, or dead stop" to any argument that continued to claim Paul believed Jesus to be a normal human person. That has to be true, because the passage very decisively says that Paul believed Jesus was NOT just a man who was a normal human being.

And just on the question of whether anything is actually "beyond all discussion" ; we are discussing it right now aren't we! And we have been discussing it since I first posted it in a previous thread even before this thread! And where in both threads, CraigB has continued to claim that Paul thought that Jesus was a human man preaching around Judea circa. 20AD-30AD (after which date he was crucified ... in fact in all previous threads CraigB has insisted that Paul actually knew for a fact that Jesus was the human brother of James) ) ... he has made those claims repeatedly, disputing that the passage in Phillipians is in any way decisive. But that passage in Phillipians is decisive; it does put an end to disputes about what Paul thought of Jesus, it very clearly says that Paul thought Jesus was NOT a normal human preacher from Judea. In the passage, Paul is adamant and crystal clear in saying that Jesus was a spiritual figure, a part of God himself in altered form, and certainly not a normal human man.

As written, that passage is a "dead stop" to any line of "discussion" which continues attempting to claim that Paul believed Jesus to be a human being preaching in Judea circa. 30AD.

But despite all of that, I just said in a previous post that there may be some way around that passage (Phillipians) for people who still want to claim Jesus was a normal non-supernatural man (and believed to be so by Paul). But it is not any kind of credible way around it, simply to hand-wave it away by saying that is sounds like a form of a "poem" or "hymn", as if that meant the actual words were somehow not in the letter at all. If the words are there, and if the letter is one of those supposedly "genuine" to Paul, then that passage is a decisive stop to claims that Paul believed Jesus to just a normal human person.
 
A bit of equivocation here.
... when CraigB says that my earlier posts had said this issue was quote "beyond all discussion", (ts - what I expect I actually said was something more like "if that passage is correct, i.e. actually written by "Paul", then that's an end to any discussion about whether "Paul" thought Jesus was a normal human man". And similarly in a post directly above I just said that passage was a "dead end, or dead stop" to any argument that continued to claim Paul believed Jesus to be a normal human person. That has to be true, because the passage very decisively says that Paul believed Jesus was NOT just a man who was a normal human being ...

And just on the question of whether anything is actually "beyond all discussion" ; we are discussing it right now aren't we!

As written, that passage is a "dead stop" to any line of "discussion" which continues attempting to claim that Paul believed Jesus to be a human being preaching in Judea circa. 30AD.

But despite all of that, I just said in a previous post that there may be some way around that passage (Phillipians) for people who still want to claim Jesus was a normal non-supernatural man (and believed to be so by Paul). But it is not any kind of credible way around it, simply to hand-wave it away by saying that is sounds like a form of a "poem" or "hymn", as if that meant the actual words were somehow not in the letter at all. If the words are there, and if the letter is one of those supposedly "genuine" to Paul, then that passage is a decisive stop to claims that Paul believed Jesus to just a normal human person.

ETA
In that passage it specifically says he was not human.

Any other questionable or ambiguous references such as "born of a woman" or "according to the flesh" etc., are completely ruled out by that passage in Phillipians, where Paul specifically says that Jesus was definitely not human. That just means that when Paul uses phrases like "according to the flesh", he is talking in religious metaphors and not talking literally about a normal human being ... that has to be the case because in Phillipians he has already stressed 3 times that Jesus was NOT a human man ...
So if he says one thing and also apparently the opposite, WE know which one is literal and which not, and only "faith based" obscurantism has the temerity to disagree with us. Is that the situation?
 
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It is simple a waste of time for posters here to continue to mis-represent letters under the name of Paul.

The Jesus in the letters under the name of Paul was a fiction character with no human father like Adam in Genesis.

1 Corinthians 15:45
And so it is written, The first man Adam was made a living soul; the last Adam was made a quickening spirit.

1 Corinthians 15:47
;The first man is of the earth, earthy; the second man is the Lord from heaven.
 
Hans; you and I are really not in disagreement on any of this, and we have been saying almost exactly the same thing in all threads re. the claimed evidence for a HJ etc. However, in your first line of reply to CraigB (highlighted above), where you agree with him that it is a "poem" (CraigB originally claimed it was "a well known hymn") - who has actually shown that passage to be a known poem or a hymn that Paul was quoting?

No, I didn't agree to more than it being A poem. As I was saying, even in bible studies circles there isn't even a consensus that Paul didn't write it himself, although it's the majority opinion that he probably didn't. Hell, suspiciously they don't even all agree upon how it would be broken into lines as a poem. And no, there isn't really any evidence of it anywhere outside Paul's letters.

I'm just sidestepping that discussion, for the scope of discussing the really important part either way: so what? Paul still transmits it to his faithful either way as a lesson. Not only he doesn't disagree with it (and we know he goes on and on about how stuff is wrong when he disagrees,) but it's something he expects his flock to agree with and take to heart.

IF it was a "well known hymn" among the early Xian churches, it just makes it a stronger argument. Then it's not only something that Paul agrees with, but we actually have a creed that his followers agreed upon too.
 
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