Grinder
Penultimate Amazing
- Joined
- Aug 26, 2011
- Messages
- 10,033
1. Italy is a member State of the Council of Europe and thus a signatory to the European Convention of Human Rights. Italy is thus obligated to follow the Convention and the ECHR case-law by treaty; the treaty is superior to all Italian law. Whether or not the Italian police, prosecutors, and courts actually follow the domestic Italian law or the Convention in each case is, of course, another issue.
The issue we have been discussing has nothing to do with the above. There is a distinct difference between 1 & 2 that the Italian people clearly understand. Not one example has been brought forward substantiating the contention there is no difference. Bongiorno mentions the law by para. Cheli points out the difference. The courts specify the para. The lawyer that wrote the book you use recognizes the law and the different paras and thinks they should changed...because they have a meaning he thinks should not be there.
So you are quite mistaken to ignore or claim that a case in Italy is not about the ECHR. As of 29 Feb 2016, there were 7550 applications alleging violations of the Convention pending before the ECHR; only Turkey, Russia, and Ukraine had higher numbers of applications pending. (Ukraine has the largest number: 14,900.)
When the verdict was announced how many people in Italy said "oh my god a para 2 what will the ECHR say?" For those that put a lot of value on the wording in Marasca, I would wager while millions read the acquittal being for insufficient evidence only a handful read the MR. The vast majority of Italians were left with a not guilty verdict because guilt couldn't be proven BARD.
2. As I showed in an earlier post, using information from Wikipedia, there are five levels or specification of acquittal in Italy and one level of guilty verdict. All acquittals are equivalent to a "not guilty" verdict. There is a confusion by some of the various paragraphs of CPP Article 530 with the levels of acquittal; the levels are in fact mixed among the paragraphs, for example, 530.1 and 530.2 can both be used for "the accused did not commit the act [crime]".
Not really. The judge shall deliver a judgment of acquittal also in case of insufficient, contradictory or lacking proof that the criminal act occurred, the accused committed it
Your translation clearly shows a 2 is when insufficient, contradictory or lacking proof and not the accused did not commit the crime.
The implication of the relevant wording of 530.1 is that the judge somehow knows that the accused did not commit the crime (without specifying that evidence was examined), while that of 530.2 is that the judge concludes that the accused did not commit the crime based upon an examination of evidence, and finds that the evidence does not support a finding of guilt, because the evidence is insufficient, contradictory, or lacking in proof.
Wow. If a defendant has an alibi that convinces the court he is entitled to a para 1 acquittal. If the evidence is not sufficient for a BARD conviction (even if the court is sure in their heart they are guilty) they must acquit para 2 as Marasca said.
The law is clear. It is clear that judges and attorneys are aware of the difference. It is clear that a non-lawyer like Cheli was aware of the difference.
Even one of the current posters here now maintaining there is no difference, the law doesn't really exist or some other way of trying to make the difference go away was absolutely convinced after the verdict that it must be a 1.