phiwum
Penultimate Amazing
- Joined
- Aug 25, 2010
- Messages
- 13,590
It's not begging the question. Again, it's an ontological statement, and largely semantic in nature. It is not intended as a proof so much as it is a means of providing a meaningful description of something.
In this case, it is a simple statement that, in order to say that something exists, it must have an effect on the universe. If it does not, then it is functionally indistinguishable from an imaginary entity, and saying that it exists is nonsensical.
Again, yes, it's utterly trivial, it's very nearly a tautology, and so forth. I never said it wasn't. But it functions, and provides a coherent means of distinguishing between real and unreal entities. I have yet to find a working alternative, but I am open to ideas about what one such might be.
No, it's not merely trivial. It makes an assertion about the nature of existence for which we have no good argument. All of your discussion comes down to whether we have evidence to conclude that the non-detectable exists, but that is not the issue at hand. The issue at hand is whether the proposition "Some things that exist cannot be detected" is literally incoherent.
That's my point. I am saying that there is, because if this stuff is undetectable, it by definition has no properties, and cannot therefore be said to actually be stuff at all.
Your point is that the existence of undetectable stuff isn't incoherent, therefore it cannot exist? That's a funny point.
By the way, you are wrong to think that undetectable stuff has no properties. It has no properties discoverable by us, but it does not follow that it has no properties. Things in a hypothetical second universe would have whatever properties such things have -- if the universe is sufficiently similar to our universe, then they would have the same sorts of properties that we are used to in this universe. However, we could not discover those properties.
Again, you turn to epistemology rather than matters of fact.
Yes, you said this before. This is what I see as unjustified, and what I am asking you to explain. I do, however, think I see where you are going wrong.
NOT NOT Q, you see, is just Q. Your restatement of my argument as "if NOT Q and NOT NOT Q are both unverifiable, we must take NOT NOT Q as true" is simply reversing the order of P and !P, then saying that, because the order is reversed, we must take P as false.
Yes, that is what I did. So what? Did I misapply your principle? Does your principle apply to Q but not to NOT Q?
However, whether or not this is correct, I will admit to once again failing to communicate my ideas clearly. I apologize; it is not often that I actually end up having an extended conversation on the subject, so I haven't had much practice in expressing them formally. Allow me to try again.
Given a proposition P, where both P and !P are defined in such a way as to be unverifiable, if either statement violates parsimony, it must be treated as false.
As we will see in a later post, this doesn't work either.