Border Reiver
Philosopher
- Joined
- Sep 6, 2011
- Messages
- 6,726
The Latin language with out any doubt has it’s origins in the Greek language.
The so called Roman-German languages have their roots with out any doubt in the Latin language.
And the Greek language after Alexander the Great has it’s origin in the Great Aramaic Language.
So why you agree that the Roman-German languages are the Indo-European I can’t understand.
Only in the case of the Aramaic Language and Sanskrit are 2 similar relative languages it is possible.
I think that there is a big possibility that it is really so.
No.
The Romance languages and the Germanic languages have different roots. Your beliefs to the contrary have no basis in reality, or in any fantasy other than your own