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The Historical Jesus II

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Please, identify the manuscripts, Papyri, or Codex that can corroborate your "early followers".

The earliest stories of Jesus and the Jesus cult is from the 2nd century or later.
dejudge, this repetitive nonsense is becoming boring. If you can't understand the principle that stories usually predate the earliest surviving copies of documents containing them, then there's nothing anyone can do to overcome your intellectual blind spot. God knows I've tried.

Maybe you should take up stamp collecting or something, and leave contemplation of the NT texts to others.
 
dejudge, this repetitive nonsense is becoming boring. If you can't understand the principle that stories usually predate the earliest surviving copies of documents containing them, then there's nothing anyone can do to overcome your intellectual blind spot. God knows I've tried.

Actually, you are the one who keeps repeating the same debunked nonsense.

There is nothing you can do to overcome the lack of historical data for your HJ.

I am obligated to instantly expose your fallacious argument EVERY time and without delay.

You have been asked multiple times to present or identify the manuscripts, Papyri or Codices from antiquity which you claim were composed c50-60 CE but have always failed to do so.

You seem to think that people here have forgotten that you have zero historical data for your imagined Jesus and invented c50-60 CE manuscripts.

We have NO pre 70 CE manuscript, Papyri, or Codex with stories of Jesus or a cult who worshiped Jesus of Nazareth as a God.

There is a massive amount of evidence to support the argument that Jesus was a figure of myth/fiction.

Craig B said:
Maybe you should take up stamp collecting or something, and leave contemplation of the NT texts to others.

I will take your fallacious arguments to pieces.
 
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You have been asked multiple times to present or identify the manuscripts, Papyri or Codices from antiquity which you claim were composed c50-60 CE but have always failed to do so.
this is what is so weird. dejudge, there are no such manuscripts. You have been told hundreds of times that there are no such manuscripts. What is there about this that you can't grasp? It's very worrying.
 
dejudge said:
You have been asked multiple times to present or identify the manuscripts, Papyri or Codices from antiquity which you claim were composed c50-60 CE but have always failed to do so.

this is what is so weird. dejudge, there are no such manuscripts. You have been told hundreds of times that there are no such manuscripts. What is there about this that you can't grasp? It's very worrying.

Well, why are you repeating the same nonsense "hundreds of times" about "earliest sources"?

You told us a hundred times that there are no such manuscripts???

Can you recall making this statement??

Craig B said:
Even if it is, it doesn't affect my argument. If the earliest followers of Christ believed him to be God, and the later followers believed him to be God, and wrote fiction to prove it, distorting or suppressing history as they did so, why do we still have the earliest sources not telling us about the virgin birth, or that Jesus is god?

You are repeating the same nonsense. You know what you write is fiction.

You have been told "hundreds of times" that the earliest sources are gLuke, gJohn and the Pauline Corpus [Papyri 4, 75 and 46] dated c 175-225 CE.

You know that the earliest sources state that Jesus was Born of a Ghost and a Virgin and that Jesus was God Creator, the LORD from heaven.

Please, stop repeating your nonsense about "earliest sources".

We have NO such sources.

We have no such manuscripts.
 
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Well, why are you repeating the same nonsense "hundreds of times" about "earliest sources"?

You told us a hundred times that there are no such manuscripts???

Can you recall making this statement??

You are repeating the same nonsense. You know what you write is fiction.

You have been told "hundreds of times" that the earliest sources are gLuke, gJohn and the Pauline Corpus [Papyri 4, 75 and 46] dated c 175-225 CE.

You know that the earliest sources state that Jesus was Born of a Ghost and a Virgin and that Jesus was God Creator, the LORD from heaven.

Please, stop repeating your nonsense about "earliest sources".

We have NO such sources.

We have no such manuscripts.
You really don't understand, do you? It is almost universally accepted, for example, that gMark is earlier than gJohn. But the earliest written evidence of any gospel is a fragment of gJohn, Rylands P52.
Although Rylands 52 is generally accepted as the earliest extant record of a canonical New Testament text, the dating of the papyrus is by no means the subject of consensus among scholars. The style of the script is Hadrianic, which would suggest a most probable date somewhere between 117 CE and 138 CE. But the difficulty of fixing the date of a fragment based solely on paleographic evidence allows a much wider range, potentially extending from before 100 CE past 150 CE.
wiki.

Yet gJohn and most certainly gMark are earlier than this. I would be very concerned if you continued to indicate that you can't understand this principle, dejudge.
 
What did that man say?

When one comes across a Mother Lode of stupidity such as:

"...try to understand simple ideas like the Resurrection and the Trinity"

and

"You know that the earliest sources state that. . . .
We have NO such sources.
We have no such manuscripts"

One cannot resist the temptation to join for some late-night amusement & perhaps incidental illumination. The "simple ideas" referred to are so removed from simple as to have caused schism after schism for nearly 2,000 years; and the earliest sources, which we apparently do not have, "state that . . . ." This is pure gold.
 
You really don't understand, do you? It is almost universally accepted, for example, that gMark is earlier than gJohn. But the earliest written evidence of any gospel is a fragment of gJohn, Rylands P52. wiki.

I have already stated that gJohn, gLuke and the Pauline Corpus are the earliest existing sources dated c 175-225 CE.

By the way, there are multiple versions of gMark and some may be later than gJohn of Papyri 75.

Craig B said:
Yet gJohn and most certainly gMark are earlier than this. I would be very concerned if you continued to indicate that you can't understand this principle, dejudge.

Again, you repeat the same nonsense. You don't understand that there are MULTIPLE versions of the Jesus story and that the SHORT gMark predates the VERSION of the story in gJohn and that there maybe versions of gMark written AFTER versions of gJohn.

You don't understand that the version of the Jesus story in the SHORT gMark predates the version of the Jesus story in the Long gMark.

For example, the Long gMark in the Alexandrinus Codex may have written AFTER the version of the story in gLuke and gJohn of Papyri 4 and 75.

The NIV version of gMark was written in the 20th century or after Papyri 4, 75, and 46.


Now, you have been told "hundreds of times" that there is NO existing manuscripts of the Jesus stories from c50-60 CE.

You have been asked "hundreds of times" to present or identify manuscripts you imagine were written c 50-60 CE and you have admitted that there are no such manuscripts.

1. You don't know what an original manuscript from c 50-60 CE looks like.

2. You don't know what an original manuscript of gLuke, gJohn or the Pauline Corpus would contain.

3. You don't know if there are original manuscripts in Papyri 4, 75 or 46.

4. You have no contemporary evidence of Jesus and Paul.

Please, get familiar with writings of antiquity because you don't know what you are talking about.

The earliest existing stories of Jesus are from the 2nd century or later and Jesus is a transfiguring water walking Son of a God, born of a Ghost and God from the beginning.

Jesus is a myth/fiction character that NEVER had any history in or out the Bible.
 
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You really don't understand, do you? It is almost universally accepted, for example, that gMark is earlier than gJohn. But the earliest written evidence of any gospel is a fragment of gJohn, Rylands P52.

You really don't understand, do you? It is almost universally accepted, for example, that gMark is earlier than gJohn. But the earliest written evidence of any gospel is a fragment of gJohn, Rylands P52.

"Although Rylands 52 is generally accepted as the earliest extant record of a canonical New Testament text, the dating of the papyrus is by no means the subject of consensus among scholars. The style of the script is Hadrianic, which would suggest a most probable date somewhere between 117 CE and 138 CE. But the difficulty of fixing the date of a fragment based solely on paleographic evidence allows a much wider range, potentially extending from before 100 CE past 150 CE. [4]"

wiki.

And here we have a prime example of why one should not site wiki

The [4] above is in reference to Nongbri, p. 46. Problem is that is NOT what Nongbri says.

Here are Nongbri's actual words on the matter:

"What I have done is to show that any serious consideration of the window of possible dates for P52 must include dates in the later second and early third centuries."

The closest thing regarding a before 100 CE date on that page is in a footnote that says

"Schmidt's argument falters on this ground just as much as the arguments of those who want an overly specific early date for the papyrus. Schmidt claims ("Zwei Anmerkungen," 11) that paléographie similarity between p52 and P. Chester Beatty X and III (each paleographically dated to the third century) would exclude a date of 125 C.E. for p52. This claim is untrue. Nor would paléographie similarities to documents from 40 C.E. in any way rule out a third-century date for p52. Such examples would simply increase the range of possible dates for p52 and confirm my thesis that we should avoid building arguments on unrealistically specific dates proposed for papyri
Earlier in the article (pg 27) it is said "Andreas Schmidt has proposed that the similarities between P52 and P. Chester Beatty X and ΙΠ might suggest a considerably later date of around 170 CE. for p52."

So the reference is in regard to the "arguments of those who want an overly specific early date for the papyrus." pointing out that any hypothetical paléographie similarities match with documents from 40 C.E. would still not rule out a third-century date.

In short the reference cited does NOT support what it is being used for and is therefore being used in a fraudulent manner. The actual range for P52 (as I have pointed out before) should be 125-225 CE.

with regards to Paleography itself:

"Paleography is a last resort for dating" and "for book hands, a period of 50 years is the least acceptable spread of time"[4][5] with it being suggested that "the "rule of thumb" should probably be to avoid dating a hand more precisely than a range of at least seventy or eighty years."[6]

In an 2005 e-mail addendum to his 1996 "The Paleographical Dating of P-46" paper Bruce W. Griffin stated "Until more rigorous methodologies are developed, it is difficult to construct a 95% confidence interval for NT manuscripts without allowing a century for an assigned date."[7]

William M Schniedewind went even further in the abstract to his 2005 paper "Problems of Paleographic Dating of Inscriptions" and stated that "The so-called science of paleography often relies on circular reasoning because there is insufficient data to draw precise conclusion about dating. Scholars also tend to oversimplify diachronic development, assuming models of simplicity rather than complexity".[8]

References:

Turner, Eric G. (1987), Greek Manuscripts of the Ancient World (2d rev. ed.; London: Institute of Classical Studies

Nongbr, Brent (2005) "The Use and Abuse of P52: Papyrological Pitfalls in the Dating of the Fourth Gospel." Harvard Theological Review 98:24.

Nongbr, Brent (2005) "The Use and Abuse of P52: Papyrological Pitfalls in the Dating of the Fourth Gospel." Harvard Theological Review 98:24.

Griffin, Bruce W. (1996), "The Paleographical Dating of P-46"

Schniedewind, William M. (2005) "Problems of Paleographic Dating of Inscriptions" in Thomas Levy, Thomas Higham (ed) (2014) The Bible and Radiocarbon Dating: Archaeology, Text and Science Routledge.
 
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And here we have a prime example of why one should not site wiki

The [4] above is in reference to Nongbri, p. 46. Problem is that is NOT what Nongbri says.

Here are Nongbri's actual words on the matter:

"What I have done is to show that any serious consideration of the window of possible dates for P52 must include dates in the later second and early third centuries."

The closest thing regarding a before 100 CE date on that page is in a footnote that says

"Schmidt's argument falters on this ground just as much as the arguments of those who want an overly specific early date for the papyrus. Schmidt claims ("Zwei Anmerkungen," 11) that paléographie similarity between p52 and P. Chester Beatty X and III (each paleographically dated to the third century) would exclude a date of 125 C.E. for p52. This claim is untrue. Nor would paléographie similarities to documents from 40 C.E. in any way rule out a third-century date for p52. Such examples would simply increase the range of possible dates for p52 and confirm my thesis that we should avoid building arguments on unrealistically specific dates proposed for papyri
Earlier in the article (pg 27) it is said "Andreas Schmidt has proposed that the similarities between P52 and P. Chester Beatty X and ΙΠ might suggest a considerably later date of around 170 CE. for p52."

So the reference is in regard to the "arguments of those who want an overly specific early date for the papyrus." pointing out that any hypothetical paléographie similarities match with documents from 40 C.E. would still not rule out a third-century date.

In short the reference cited does NOT support what it is being used for and is therefore being used in a fraudulent manner. The actual range for P52 (as I have pointed out before) should be 125-225 CE.

with regards to Paleography itself:

"Paleography is a last resort for dating" and "for book hands, a period of 50 years is the least acceptable spread of time"[4][5] with it being suggested that "the "rule of thumb" should probably be to avoid dating a hand more precisely than a range of at least seventy or eighty years."[6]

In an 2005 e-mail addendum to his 1996 "The Paleographical Dating of P-46" paper Bruce W. Griffin stated "Until more rigorous methodologies are developed, it is difficult to construct a 95% confidence interval for NT manuscripts without allowing a century for an assigned date."[7]

William M Schniedewind went even further in the abstract to his 2005 paper "Problems of Paleographic Dating of Inscriptions" and stated that "The so-called science of paleography often relies on circular reasoning because there is insufficient data to draw precise conclusion about dating. Scholars also tend to oversimplify diachronic development, assuming models of simplicity rather than complexity".[8]

References:

Turner, Eric G. (1987), Greek Manuscripts of the Ancient World (2d rev. ed.; London: Institute of Classical Studies

Nongbr, Brent (2005) "The Use and Abuse of P52: Papyrological Pitfalls in the Dating of the Fourth Gospel." Harvard Theological Review 98:24.

Nongbr, Brent (2005) "The Use and Abuse of P52: Papyrological Pitfalls in the Dating of the Fourth Gospel." Harvard Theological Review 98:24.

Griffin, Bruce W. (1996), "The Paleographical Dating of P-46"

Schniedewind, William M. (2005) "Problems of Paleographic Dating of Inscriptions" in Thomas Levy, Thomas Higham (ed) (2014) The Bible and Radiocarbon Dating: Archaeology, Text and Science Routledge.

OK, so the earliest surviving manuscript of gJohn is from the 2nd or 3rd century. I think it is safe to assume that the copy we have isn't the original, so gJohn was originally written some time before this copy was made. How long before, years? Decades? Who knows?

I also think it is safe to say that gMark (short version) was written before gJohn. Again it isn't certain, but I think gMark was written decades before gJohn. We don't need an earlier papyrus to tell us that, we can rely on internal dating to decide. Matthew and Luke appear to rely heavily on gMark and at least one other source (common sayings, or Q, or something), which suggests they were composed in between gMark and gJohn. How long did that take? Does anyone know for sure? I doubt it.
 
When one comes across a Mother Lode of stupidity such as:

"...try to understand simple ideas like the Resurrection and the Trinity"

and

"You know that the earliest sources state that. . . .
We have NO such sources.
We have no such manuscripts"

One cannot resist the temptation to join for some late-night amusement & perhaps incidental illumination. The "simple ideas" referred to are so removed from simple as to have caused schism after schism for nearly 2,000 years; and the earliest sources, which we apparently do not have, "state that . . . ." This is pure gold.
I was teasing dejudge about the simplicity of these concepts. I am aware of the difficulties they have posed. dejudge, however, appears to be unaware of the content of these doctrines.

We do indeed have sources in the content of the texts in question. I have repeatedly discussed the internal evidence of the dating of Paul's activities. We can confidently propose the most probable order of composition.

But as I state: we have no such sources as dejudge specifies, eg mid first century codices. There are none. Do you understand now?

If there are no such extant early manuscripts, does that mean that the works were composed hundreds of years later, when the earliest extant manuscripts do start to appear? Well, no. For example the oldest manuscript of Caesar's Gallic War is mediaeval.

Do you follow the argument now? It has been discussed exhaustively, and you can find these thoughts in previous posts.
 
In short the reference cited does NOT support what it is being used for and is therefore being used in a fraudulent manner. The actual range for P52 (as I have pointed out before) should be 125-225 CE.
Fraudulent? The point I am making is that, assuming P52 is the earliest extant documentary evidence for any canonical Gospel, then the earliest evidence is for gJohn. But even the "frauds" who have the outrageous audacity to believe differently from you - the impudence of these criminals! - do not therefore conclude that because the oldest manuscript is a fragment of gJohn, that must be the oldest Gospel. This is my argument.

Thank you for you interesting material on the various dates proposed for this fragment, by the way.
 
OK, so the earliest surviving manuscript of gJohn is from the 2nd or 3rd century. I think it is safe to assume that the copy we have isn't the original, so gJohn was originally written some time before this copy was made. How long before, years? Decades? Who knows?

I also think it is safe to say that gMark (short version) was written before gJohn. Again it isn't certain, but I think gMark was written decades before gJohn. We don't need an earlier papyrus to tell us that, we can rely on internal dating to decide. Matthew and Luke appear to rely heavily on gMark and at least one other source (common sayings, or Q, or something), which suggests they were composed in between gMark and gJohn. How long did that take? Does anyone know for sure? I doubt it.

From what I have seen a decade tends to be rule of thumb here ie if you have Mark at 70, then Matthew is at 80, Luke at 90 and John at 100 CE.

While we don't know for sure we can say some things about the dates. Against Heresies at c180 quotes the canonal Gospels like crazy and this fits with Papyrus 75 (Luke 3:18-24:53 + John 1-15) at 175-225. So a c180 CE as the upper limit for the Gospels is reasonable.

If claims about Marcion's Evangelikon can be trusted then this pushes Luke back to the 140s but other then what may be short passage references in the 130s that is as far back as one can go.

As I have mentioned before while Two‑source Marcan priority (Mark first) is the most popular theory it isn't the only theory out there. In addition to three other sub theories in Marcan priority you have Matthaean priority (Matthew first) with two main main sub-theories, Lucan priority (Luke first), and finally the No Gospel with its Multi‑source, Proto‑gospel, and Independence theories.
 
Fraudulent?

What other word would one use for saying that a source says P52 could be before 100 CE when that is NOT what it says?

Nongbri is making a hypothetical argument that any paléographie similarities match with documents from 40 C.E. would still not rule out a third-century date. NOWHERE in the article does he claim that P52 could be that old and in fact states that the people making such a claim are doing so "with absolutely no evidence" and that "This so-called "consensus" in "recent opinion," as it rests on assertions with no evidence, is highly dubious." (pg 31)


The point I am making is that, assuming P52 is the earliest extant documentary evidence for any canonical Gospel, then the earliest evidence is for gJohn.

The problem is the assumption isn't valid and rests on a MISUSE of paleographic dating. As Turner (1987), Griffin (1996), Nongbri (2005), Schniedewind (2005) all show that paleographical dating simply isn't up the task it is being used for. The best you can hope for is a 50 year range with 100 years being more reasonable.


Move over that c125 date is from a paper in 1935:

"Subsequent scholars have been bolder; they have tended to assign to p52 a date closer and closer to the early end of Roberts's tentative range, and without providing new evidence. They have, moreover, done so in spite of the encouragement of caution from other papyrological experts."

So we have what amounts to scholars effectively making up dates when the experts in the field are warning them such dates are on very shaky ground. If presenting such dates that have NO EVIDENCE PRESENTED TO BACK THEM UP and using the earliest date possible as if it was the midrange is not fraud I have to ask what is? :confused:
 
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From what I have seen a decade tends to be rule of thumb here ie if you have Mark at 70, then Matthew is at 80, Luke at 90 and John at 100 CE.

While we don't know for sure we can say some things about the dates. Against Heresies at c180 quotes the canonal Gospels like crazy and this fits with Papyrus 75 (Luke 3:18-24:53 + John 1-15) at 175-225. So a c180 CE as the upper limit for the Gospels is reasonable.

If claims about Marcion's Evangelikon can be trusted then this pushes Luke back to the 140s but other then what may be short passage references in the 130s that is as far back as one can go.
We should remember why we are discussing this. It is in the context of a possible historical Jesus. The belief in a Christ most certainly predates 140 CE. Consider Pliny's letter to Trajan
Others named by the informer declared that they were Christians, but then denied it, asserting that they had been but had ceased to be, some three years before, others many years, some as much as twenty-five years.
The letter was written (internal evidence of Pliny's tenure as governor of Bythinia) in 111-113 CE, albeit that the earliest extant copy is mediaeval, or even later. So Pliny encountered people in Bythinia who had been Christians, and then given that up, twenty five years before 113 CE.

That argues for an early date of establishment of the Christian religion, and thus an early date for Paul. It seems likely that these early Christians would have had some sort of sacred texts and as Paul has evidence of early composition in his texts, as discussed, it is not absurd to propose that these first Christians knew of Paul's work in one form or another.

The relative dates of the earliest extant manuscripts of the Epistles and the Gospels are not really relevant to this question. They reflect the date of expansion, not necessarily of the original foundation, of the Christian religion.
 
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I was teasing dejudge about the simplicity of these concepts. I am aware of the difficulties they have posed. dejudge, however, appears to be unaware of the content of these doctrines.

You were teasing me??

You have admitted "hundreds of times" that there are no manuscripts dated c 50-60 CE with letters of the Pauline Corpus.

Craig B said:
We do indeed have sources in the content of the texts in question. I have repeatedly discussed the internal evidence of the dating of Paul's activities. We can confidently propose the most probable order of composition.

Are you still teasing me?? You have repeatedly stated that there are no manuscripts dated c 50-60 CE with letters of the Pauline Corpus.

What manuscripts are you using to discuss the "internal evidence" of dating Paul's activities?

You tease too much!!!

You are using the post medieval NIV Bible, Papyri 46 or manuscripts of Acts of the Apostles dated to the 2nd century or later.

Craig B said:
But as I state: we have no such sources as dejudge specifies, eg mid first century codices. There are none. Do you understand now?

Can you repeat that a hundred more times? We have no manuscripts of Pauline letters from c 50-60 CE.

You tease me so much that you forget what you said--sometimes in a matter of minutes.

Craig B said:
If there are no such extant early manuscripts, does that mean that the works were composed hundreds of years later, when the earliest extant manuscripts do start to appear? Well, no. For example the oldest manuscript of Caesar's Gallic War is mediaeval.

You are still teasing me!!!

1The oldest manuscripts of the RESURRECTION of Jesus on the THIRD day are dated c175-225 CE.[Papyri 46]

The RESURRECTION of Jesus on the THIRD day must have happened hundreds of years earlier???

2. The oldest manuscript with the Holy Ghost birth narrative is dated to 175-225 CE.[Papyri 4]

The Holy Ghost conception and birth of Jesus must have happened hundreds of years earlier???

3. The oldest manuscript with the TRANSFIGURATION of Jesus is dated c 175-225 CE.[Papyri 75]

The TRANSFIGURATION of Jesus must have happened hundreds of years earlier??

4. The oldest manuscript with Jesus Walking on the Sea is dated c 175-225 CE

Jesus must have walked on the sea hundreds of years earlier??

Craig B said:
Do you follow the argument now? It has been discussed exhaustively, and you can find these thoughts in previous posts.

Do you follow your own argument now? It has been exhaustively DEBUNKED in this and previous posts.
 
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What manuscripts are you using to discuss the "internal evidence" of dating Paul's activities?
Any that say Paul was in Damascus during the reign of Aretas (d 40 CE) for example. That is what internal evidence means. It is why we don't date Caesar's account of his activities In Gaul to the Middle Ages, even though that's when the earliest extant copy was penned.
 
Has anyone seen this (link below)? Particularly Craig and anyone else here on the HJ side?

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=HhvmuLxBxXU

That's a recent YouTube film of Richard Carrier in debate against two Christians on the subject of whether or not Jesus existed.

It's a long video, and the sound quality on Carriers microphone is not great at the start of the film, but it's worth watching for the HJ side here in particular, because in the film Carrier demolishes all the same pro HJ arguments that have been used by people here, to the point where in the film the two Christian opponents and their HJ arguments were so thoroughly trounced that it ended up in their complete humiliation.

The film appears to cover all the same material given in Carriers latest book. So as Carrier says, you may need to check in the book for full details and references to all of the points he makes in the film.
 
We should remember why we are discussing this. It is in the context of a possible historical Jesus. The belief in a Christ most certainly predates 140 CE.

As has been pointed out before Christ is a title used by at least two others according to the Christians themselves: Dositheos the Samaritan c 4 BCE and Simon Magus. Some people believe Simon is Atomus in Josephus which based on the association with procurator Felix would put him 52-58 CE.

So we have two people acknowledged as having used the 'Christ' title before and after Jesus supposed ministry. The modern equivalent would be as if to say any reference to protestantism MUST refer only to those churches that have "Protestant" in their name and just as silly.

Pliny's Christians could have been followers of Jesus or they could just as easily been worshiping some other guy as a god. Pliny given no detail as to when this "Christ" was thought to have lived or even his name. Heck about 20 years after Pliny wrote his letter Simon bar Kokhba took up the title of "Christ" and lead his little revolt.

A reference to a "Christ" without temporal markets is NOT a reference to Jesus; stop treating it as such.
 
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Has anyone seen this (link below)? Particularly Craig and anyone else here on the HJ side?

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=HhvmuLxBxXU

That's a recent YouTube film of Richard Carrier in debate against two Christians on the subject of whether or not Jesus existed.

It's a long video, and the sound quality on Carriers microphone is not great at the start of the film, but it's worth watching for the HJ side here in particular, because in the film Carrier demolishes all the same pro HJ arguments that have been used by people here, to the point where in the film the two Christian opponents and their HJ arguments were so thoroughly trounced that it ended up in their complete humiliation.

The film appears to cover all the same material given in Carriers latest book. So as Carrier says, you may need to check in the book for full details and references to all of the points he makes in the film.

Watching it now.
At about the 15 minute mark Carrier says Paul says that "All they know about Jesus comes from revelation and scripture". He says that is in Romans 16:
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Romans+16&version=ESV

I guess he means this part:
Doxology
25 Now to him who is able to strengthen you according to my gospel and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery that was kept secret for long ages 26 but has now been disclosed and through the prophetic writings has been made known to all nations, according to the command of the eternal God, to bring about the obedience of faith— 27 to the only wise God be glory forevermore through Jesus Christ! Amen.

Although according to the footnote for verse 23:
Romans 16:23 Some manuscripts insert verse 24: The grace of our Lord Jesus Christ be with you all. Amen.

Could verses 25-27 be an interpolation? I think so, because some manuscripts have Romans finish at verse 24...

Anyway, moving on:
He goes on to mention 1 Corinthians 15:
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1+Corinthians+15
Speaking of Paul he says: "The only time he says anyone saw Jesus is after his death" Erm... He says that Jesus was raised from the dead, but don't people generally live their lives before they're dead?
12 If we preach that Christ was raised from death, how can some of you say that the dead will not be raised to life? 13 If they won’t be raised to life, Christ himself wasn’t raised to life. 14 And if Christ wasn’t raised to life, our message is worthless, and so is your faith. 15 If the dead won’t be raised to life, we have told lies about God by saying that he raised Christ to life, when he really did not.
(well, yes Paul, you told lies...)

It's getting late here, I might pick up on this tomorrow...
 
As has been pointed out before Christ is a title used by at least two others according to the Christians themselves: Dositheos the Samaritan c 4 BCE and Simon Magus. Some people believe Simon is Atomus in Josephus which based on the association with procurator Felix would put him 52-58 CE.

So we have two people acknowledged as having used the 'Christ' title before and after Jesus supposed ministry.

Pliny's Christians could have been followers of Jesus or they could just as easily been worshiping some other guy as a god. The modern equivalent would be as if to say any reference to protestantism MUST refer only to those churches that have "Protestant" and just as silly.

Reference to "Christ" is NOT a reference to Jesus; stop treating it as such.

So, why was Pliny torturing and executing "Christians" again? What was the crime of these followers of that Samaritan, or Simon Magus?
 
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