lonepinealex
Muse
Why does either alternative matter? If the police/prosecutor violated the rights of the suspects - the eventual defendants - under Italian law or ECHR case law. doesn't that official misconduct constitute a violation that must be accounted for - by, for example, disallowing the false evidence such as false, coerced statements from all trials, criminal or civil?
Part of the question being posed is: When was the official misconduct planned? (That is, when did the framing begin?) And perhaps there is no single answer to that, since one cannot see inside the mind of Mignini. But on the first day the body was discovered, there were intentional failures by the police to measure/record the victim's body temperature and to effectively document the broken window and scattered glass for forensic analysis. These failures both establish intent to commit official misconduct and constitute official misconduct, IMO. Failure to follow recognized police or forensic protocol is generally a sign of misconduct, IMO.
It matters because some people are suggesting that Amanda (and Raffaele by extension) were deliberately targeted for framing from the 2nd November despite the police and Mignini knowing they were innocent all along, in order to take the heat off Rudy Guede.
I think this is nonsense. It's the classic question - conspiracy or cock up. I opt for cock up unless someone believing in the conspiracy can show me some extraordinary evidence for their extraordinary claim.
The evidence planting / fabricating weeks and months on, when the initial evidence leading to the arrests fell apart, is a separate issue and not one that I dispute.
